Pretty obvious, don't you think?
But to labor the obvious. . .
A "little" exegesis does not give full understanding
A full exegesis of 1 Tim 2:12-14 is needed to understand it correctly.
If you insist.
Exegesis involves looking at the context: type of writing, who was it written by, who was it written to, language, background, what the author meant by those words, and what those who read/heard the words have understood by them.
Type of writing: Personal letter.
Written by: Paul, though some scholars have doubted this. Probably written in Ephesus.
Who addressed to: Timothy.
Language: Greek.
Background:
i) this letter was written against a Jewish background. For Jews, women had a large part to play in home and family life, but officially, women had a very low position in society and almost no rights. A woman was the property of her father or husband, forbidden from learning, took no part in the Synagogue service. A woman could not even teach the youngest children in school, a strict Rabbi would not greet a woman on the street; not even his own wife, mother or daughter. (Source, William Barclay.)
ii) it was written against a Greek background. In Greek religion, women had a very low place. The temple of Aphrodite had 1000 priestesses who were, in fact, prostitutes. A respectable Greek woman never appeared on the streets alone and never went into a public gathering or place of worship. If Christian women in a Greek town had taken part in the work of the church and spoken - even prophesied, the church would have gained a reputation of being the resort of loose women. There were women whose whole life consisted of wearing expensive clothes and elaborately braiding their hair. Apparently, the Greeks and the Romans were shocked at some of the extravagances of a woman's clothing.
(Sources, William Barclay, Tom Wright.)
iii) The early church preached to Jews and Greeks. The way Jesus had treated women was very different to these cultural norms - he allowed Mary of Bethany to sit at his feet and learn, as a male student Rabbi would. God himself had said that a woman who wanted to learn had "chosen the best way". He allowed a woman to go back to her town to tell the men about him and he chose a woman to be the first witness to the resurrection. It was women who had followed him to the cross and who went to anoint his body. Women prayed with the disciples before Pentecost and hosted early church meetings in their homes. In addition, Priscilla was a respected teacher, Phoebe was a deacon, Lydia was one of the first converts in Philippi and may have been a founder member of the church, there were deaconesses in the church, Paul had female co-workers who he greatly valued. All of this took place before Paul wrote this letter - maybe his last - to Timothy.
iv) within Christianity, therefore, women were becoming liberated - after the example of Jesus himself. It is likely that, in their new-found enthusiasm, some women were getting carried away and beginning to dominate the men )source, The New IVP Bible commentary.
Now - having discovered the background and historical context, let's look at the text.
In 1 Timothy 2:8-10 Paul is dealing with the issue of women who wore extravagant clothes and braided their hair. Clearly that was a cultural issue.
He does not say, and we do not read it, that women today cannot have plaits or wear gold in church - otherwise bye bye wedding rings.
A woman[
a] should learn in quietness and full submission.
We've already seen that, in both Jewish and Greek cultures, women were not allowed to learn. Paul says that they should. There is a note, however, to say that the word for woman can also mean wife.
12 I do not permit a woman to teach or to assume authority over a man;[
b] she must be quiet.
Paul did not permit a woman to teach or assume authority.
a) Most of Paul's letters were not sermons or statements of doctrine which he had spent hours composing; they were written -or dictated - quickly to meet an urgent need, answer a question or address a problem in the church. It is entirely possible that that was what was going on here (William Barclay.)
b) in the previous verses Paul says "women everywhere", here he says A woman.
c) As I said earlier the word for authority actually means to snatch authority forcibly from someone. If women - or A woman - was over-enthusiastic and beginning to dominate men, it would make sense that Paul was forbidding her from doing so. So that the Christian church was able to witness to the Greek society around it and not be brought into disrepute.
Paul was not commanding that ALL women in ALL the churches should behave like this - far less those in the future, since he believed that Jesus would return in his lifetime.
13 For Adam was formed first, then Eve.
If the word "woman" is to be translated as "wife" this makes more sense. But anyway, he does not say that women are inferior because they were created 2nd.
14 And Adam was not the one deceived; it was the woman who was deceived and became a sinner.
This fits in with verse 11; "a woman should learn". Why? Because Eve was deceived. If you look at Genesis 2, Eve had not been created when Adam was given a command from God. Now read Genesis 3:3; when Eve repeated the command to the serpent, she got the words wrong. As we are not told that God directly spoke to Eve, it is reasonable to assume that Adam told her what he said. Either she remembered it wrongly or she hadn't been listening in the first place - she didn't KNOW, so the serpent was able to plant doubt in her mind. The serpent didn't approach Adam because it knew that Adam had heard directly from God. If you KNOW something, you are far less likely to be deceived.
15 But women[
c] will be saved through childbearing—if they continue in faith, love and holiness with propriety.
What does this mean? It's clearly not literal - women are saved by Jesus.
Hopefully you'll at least have the courtesy to address some of these points - most of which come from commentaries - and not just dismiss this post as "denial" or disobedience.