Is that still true when you omit suicides from that statistic set?
My understanding of that data is that suicides vastly skew that particular "factoid" that people like to mention. If you have a gun in your home, and you're not suicidal, that gun is very unlikely to kill you.
(keeping in mind, gun restrictions don't have a huge impact on suicide rates. After UK's ban and gun confiscation, their suicide rates remained relatively static, only the preferred method changed)
The UK had one strict round of gun control measures in both 1987 (which eliminated semi-automatic rifles) and another in 1996 (which eliminated most handguns).
Not a huge shift in the numbers...
2 years prior to the restrictions, 7.4...with guns being the method used in ~50% of cases
2 years after the restrictions, 7.5...with "Hanging and suffocation" now sitting atop the list (with intentional overdose as a close 2nd)
According to "Lost all Hope", a suicide prevention organization for England and Wales, "
With the change in availability of firearms in the UK, the methods of suicide have become more evenly spread"
That "factoid" also fails to control for the fact that the people who often keep a gun in their home live in high crime areas where home invasions and robberies are more common. So a person who buys a gun for home defense because there are elevated rates of break-ins could be more likely to die by gunshot, but it's not from their own gun in those cases.
That'd be like saying "homes with fire trucks in front of them are 10x more likely to be on fire, therefore, fire trucks cause house fires"
It also fails to control for gang-related activity. A gang member who buys a gun to do "gang stuff" certainly has a higher chance of getting shot by another gang when doing said "gang stuff"
These are the nitty gritty details that need to be controlled for when trying to calculate the kinds of stats you're referring to.