If we were made totally obedient, why does the apostle Paul write (after his conversion):
“18 For I know that in me (that is, in my flesh) nothing good dwells; for to will is present with me, but [how] to perform what is good I do not find. 19 For the good that I will [to do], I do not do; but the evil I will not [to do], that I practice.” (Ro 7:18-19 NKJV)
Morning, David...
Rom 7's middle and end are entirely a narrative from Paul's past, while he still walked in the flesh, (Rom 7:5), and was trying unsuccessfully to keep the Law of Moses.
It was of no use to him, regarding salvation.
You'll notice that Paul's Rom 7:23 plaint is answered in Rom 8:2.
And Paul's Rom 7:24 plaint is answered in Rom 6:6.
Both are answers to Paul's prior complaints, indicating that they are from his past and still in the flesh.
And why did the apostle John write to his Christian readers:
“8 ¶ If we say that we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us. 9 If we confess our sins, He is faithful and just to forgive us [our] sins and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness.” (1Jo 1:8-9 NKJV)
John is addressing the church about two very different kinds of men.
One walks in the light, which is God in Whom is no sin.
The other walks in darkness, which Pro 4:19 says is sin.
John uses an alternating style of writing in an effort to juxtapose one against the other.
(Paul used the same "style" in Rom 8, juxtaposing those who walked in the flesh against those who walked in the Spirit.)
So, verses 5, 7, and 9, address those who are, or are about to, walk in the light-God.
Verses 6, 8, and 10, address those who walk in darkness-sin.
It is the sinners who cannot say they have no sin.
But those in the light-God cannot have any sin on them because there is no sin in God !