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Two Aspects of Salvation (Believers Need to Be Concerned With):

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Thank you. This was really quite excellent. It is much appreciated.

I note the following sections -

Sin Never to Be Returned to After Repentance​

The problem, of course, is that, like it or not, we are sinners such that a one-time repentance does not prevent one from committing more sins, even the one from which one has repented. Although one might most sincerely desire not to commit sin and have repented of it and confessed it, as long as we are in the flesh we are more than capable of committing sin. For example, the sin of coveting. We live in a highly materialistic society such that we are bombarded with advertising, even here at CF. In the sea of advertising there is bound to be something which one might desire, but which is impossible to obtain. Thus, we have coveting. Let's say I covet a sports car and have repented of that coveting and drive a Yugo. However, when I am driving down the street and a glorious sports car passes me I cannot help but admire it and wish that I were its driver. Thus, I have coveted yet again.

Baptism Not to Be Presumptously Received. It Requires Preceding Repentance, Manifested by Amendment of Life​


It is manifestly obvious that babies do not repent prior to their baptism, nor can they. Without sin of their own prior to baptism they do not, and cannot, manifest any sort of amendment of life. Like it or not, baptism is for sinners who, having repented of their sin and believed in Jesus Christ, do manifest it following their baptism by the amendment of their life, even though, as noted above, sin still enters into their lives from time to time (see above). This is also cogently addressed in chapter 7 of the article. Thus, any human repentance can be said to be incomplete, despite one's most sincere intent. The problem is determining whether or not the repentance was actually satisfactory to God. If God requires perfection in the believer, then none of our repentance meets that standard.

Thanks again!
You are saying that we are sinners and we will sin again. However, the problem with this line of thinking is that it makes a person to think they have given into sin as their true Master instead of the Lord Jesus Christ. Yes, while there is the possibility to sin again and there is grace (1 John 2:1, 1 John 1:9), the Bible does not teach that we are always helpless sinners whereby we will always sin again as a matter of fact.

Romans 6:22 says,

“But now being made free from sin, and become servants to God,​
ye have your fruit unto holiness, and the end everlasting life. “​

Romans 6:18 says,

”Being then made free from sin, ye became the servants of righteousness.”​

We are servants of righteousness. We have become servant to God and our fruit is unto holiness, and the end is everlasting life.

Notice, it does not say we are servants to sin and we still have fruit unto holiness and the end is everlasting life. This is why most of Christianity is not going to make it. They do not know that Matthew 13:41-42 is a warning to them.

The Son of Man will send forth his angels and gather out of HIS KINGDOM all who do iniquity and they will be cast into the furnace of fire (i.e., the Lake of Fire). So any believers who have a mindset to sin or to justify sin, they are going to be destroyed by God.

John 8:34-35 says that the servant (i.e., servant of sin) will not abide in the house forever (i.e., the house of Christ). They will be cast into the furnace of fire. Christ has to weed out those who are bad in His kingdom before He offers His kingdom to God the Father (See: 1 Corinthians 15:24).
 
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BelieveItOarKnot

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For example: John Piper (A Calvinist) falsely teaches you can sin and still be saved.
There have been no sinless people saved that I'm aware of. You?

Paul was pretty clear that Jesus came to save sinners, and he claimed to be chief among same, present tense. 1 Tim 1:15

There's also a huge theological problem with counting sins against people in the first place:

2 Cor 5:
19 that God was reconciling the world to himself in Christ, not counting people’s sins against them. And he has committed to us the message of reconciliation.

Not counting doesn't mean any person is sinless. It means they are not counted.

There is another side of the coin that most miss on the entire subject of sin in relationship to salvation.

Sin is "of the devil," 1 John 3:8, Mark 4:15

That is unlikely to change after salvation and probably gets worse, as we are prone to more attacks by the enemy of us all

So there's a basic lesson involved here. Devils aren't saved and they are still up to their eyeballs in sin. God is counting sins against them.

It's an interesting system God put together here
 
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bbbbbbb

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2 Corinthians 7:10 says godly sorrow leads to repentance. This is when the Corinthians had been broken up about their sin in the fear of God and they sought forgiveness with the Lord. Obviously godly sorrow would be another level different than the sorrow of this world. It would be a transformation and dedication to the Lord Jesus and commitment, as well. Yes, they would be broken to tears, but it is that spiritual dedication and realization of making the Lord their God their master because of the disgust over their own sin that they no longer want to live in anymore. Judas was sorry for betraying the Lord, but he was not sorrowed with a godly sorrow that led to repentance. Judas killed himself. His sorrow was worldly and man centered. Peter denied the Lord three times and later he realized his error and he had a godly sorrow that led to proper repentance in tears. Peter was truly broken not only emotionally but broken in such a way to yield to God’s ways and not His own path of destruction like Judas.
There are many Christians who exhibit godly sorrow and do repent wholeheartedly of their sin, yet find themselves committing sin yet again. Is there a genuine Christian who does not exhibit godly sorrow? Does that mean that, having shown godly sorrow and having repented, one is, thereby free from committing sin again?
 
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There are many Christians who exhibit godly sorrow and do repent wholeheartedly of their sin, yet find themselves committing sin yet again. Is there a genuine Christian who does not exhibit godly sorrow? Does that mean that, having shown godly sorrow and having repented, one is, thereby free from committing sin again?
You have to prove by Scripture that this is the case. Until, then it is just your human thoughts or reasoning.
 
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There have been no sinless people saved that I'm aware of. You?
Obviously everyone has sinned as a part of their old life and believers can stumble into sin on occasion. But ask yourself. Why does 2 Corinthians 7:1 tell us to cleanse ourselves from all filthiness of the flesh and spirit perfecting holiness in the fear of God? Most today are unable to see simple verses like this.

Paul was pretty clear that Jesus came to save sinners, and he claimed to be chief among same, present tense. 1 Tim 1:15

There's also a huge theological problem with counting sins against people in the first place:
Read the context.

1 Timothy 1:12-15
12 ”And I thank Christ Jesus our Lord, who hath enabled me, for that he counted me faithful, putting me into the ministry;
13 Who was before a blasphemer, and a persecutor, and injurious: but I obtained mercy, because I did itignorantly in unbelief.
14 And the grace of our Lord was exceeding abundant with faith and love which is in Christ Jesus.
15 This is a faithful saying, and worthy of all acceptation, that Christ Jesus came into the world to save sinners; of whom I am chief.”

Paul was before a blasphemer, a persecutor, and injurious. This is a part of Paul’s old life and it is not saying he is continuing to do these things.


2 Cor 5:
19 that God was reconciling the world to himself in Christ, not counting people’s sins against them. And he has committed to us the message of reconciliation.

Not counting doesn't mean any person is sinless. It means they are not counted.
This is referring to the Provisional Atonement because it is talking about the world being reconciled. This means that Christ died for everyone. He is the Lamb of God who takes away the sin of the world. This means that besides those who will worship the beast (Revelation 13:8) (Revelation 17:8) everyone has been redeemed by Christ when they were a baby. However, when a baby grows up to be old enough to be held accountable for their sin, then they need to repent of their sins to Jesus Christ and accept Him as their Savior by faith. Plus if you read the surrounding verses, it really does not bode well for the sin and still be saved type mindset.

Vs. 10 - Everyone must receive what they done in their body whether good or bad.
Vs 11 - Therefore the terror of the Lord we persuade men.
Vs 15 We should not henceforth live unto ourselves, but unto him which died for them, and rose again.
Vs 17 - If any man be in Christ, he is a new creature, old things have passed away.

There is another side of the coin that most miss on the entire subject of sin in relationship to salvation.

Sin is "of the devil," 1 John 3:8, Mark 4:15

That is unlikely to change after salvation and probably gets worse, as we are prone to more attacks by the enemy of us all

So there's a basic lesson involved here. Devils aren't saved and they are still up to their eyeballs in sin. God is counting sins against them.

It's an interesting system God put together here
Most Christians believe 1st John is just dealing with a break in fellowship if a believer sins. But this is not the case. 1 John 2:4 says that the person who says they know the Lord and does not keep His commandments is a liar and the truth is not in him.
What truth? Jesus because Jesus is the way, the truth, and the life (John 14:6), and you need to abide in the Son in order to have eternal life. How so? Well, 1 John 5:12 says he that has the Son has life, and he that does not have the Son of God does not have life.

So yes, sin is of the devil. But verse 10 clarifies what is being said.

1 John 3:10
”In this the children of God are manifest, and the children of the devil: whosoever doeth not righteousness is not of God, neither he that loveth not his brother.”

This means that we have to be doing righteousness and loving our brother. If we are not doing righteousness and loving our brother we are not of God. Somebody that is not of God is not saved.

1 John 3:15 is another one you need to read and believe.

It says if you hate your brother you are a murderer, and no murderer has eternal life. So there goes that whole sin and still be saved idea you got. You actually have to live holy as a part of God’s plan of salvation (Important Note: Please keep in mind that living holy is only after you are saved initially by God’s grace - which is a process without works).
 
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You're dodging the question.
When the question is based on the Bible, or reality I am able to answer. For example: That would be like asking, which cats do you like? The green cats that breath fire, or the purple cats that fly through the air and shoot lasers from their eyes?

Again, if their point is not grounded in Scripture, then how is it even relevant to the faith?
Remember, faith comes by hearing, and hearing the Word of God (See: Romans 10:17).

The Bible says godly sorrow leads to repentance. Our friend does not believe that is always the case. I have not seen the Bible say that godly sorrow may not work sometimes and not lead to repentance. Also, how can a person be sure that they are properly detecting godly sorrow, and repentance? Wouldn’t it be God who truly knows this? Can a human without a revelation from God really make that kind of determination?
 
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ozso

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When the question is based on the Bible, or reality I am able to answer. For example: That would be like asking, which cats do you like? The green cats that breath fire, or the purple cats that fly through the air and shoot lasers from their eyes?

Again, if their point is not grounded in Scripture, then how is it even relevant to the faith?
Remember, faith comes by hearing, and hearing the Word of God (See: Romans 10:17).

The Bible says godly sorrow leads to repentance. Our friend does not believe that is always the case. I have not seen the Bible say that godly sorrow may not work sometimes and not lead to repentance. Also, how can a person be sure that they are properly detecting godly sorrow, and repentance? Wouldn’t it be God who truly knows this? Can a human without a revelation from God really make that kind of determination?
That's not what was being asked.
 
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Obviously everyone has sinned as a part of their old life and believers can stumble into sin on occasion.
I'm not aware that believers are sinless at any point in this life. So notions that sin only happens, maybe, sometimes for believers are patently false.

Are you sure that's the angle your position wants to take?
 
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ozso

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I'm not aware that believers are sinless at any point in this life. So notions that sin only happens, maybe, sometimes for believers are patently false.

Are you sure that's the angle your position wants to take?
As I recall he believes there are mortal sins and vienial sins. And usually when you're talking about sin, he's thinking of mortal sins like adultery, bearing false witness, stealing, murder etc. Therefore a Christian only commits those kinds of sins once in a while.
 
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bbbbbbb

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You have to prove by Scripture that this is the case. Until, then it is just your human thoughts or reasoning.
I John 1:8 If we claim to be without sin, we deceive ourselves and the truth is not in us. 9 If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just and will forgive us our sins and purify us from all unrighteousness. 10 If we claim we have not sinned, we make him out to be a liar and his word is not in us.
 
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That's not what was being asked.
If you are careful to look at his post, he asked two questions. I lead a busy life and so I honestly did not get to his second question. I was already shaking my head at his first question.
 
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I John 1:8 If we claim to be without sin, we deceive ourselves and the truth is not in us. 9 If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just and will forgive us our sins and purify us from all unrighteousness. 10 If we claim we have not sinned, we make him out to be a liar and his word is not in us.
You asked two questions. In your second question, which is tied to your first question, you assume that I believe that repentance means you can never stumble into sin ever again. I have already admitted that believers can occasionally sin without them intending to do so. However, this is a far cry from saying that godly sorrow does not lead to repentance. It does. Otherwise you simply do not believe the Scriptures.

Let me give you an example. If a drunk joins a drug program to be free of his addiction to alcohol, he can stumble on his road to recovery but his stumbling on occasion does not define his end goal of overcoming his addiction in time. His eventual overcoming his sin is repentance of the sin of drunkenness. Oh, and there are lots of people who are alcohol free today and they once were horribly addicted to booze, etcetera. So one can overcome sin.

As for 1 John 1:8:

What is helpful in understanding 1 John 1:8 is looking at its immediate context. 1 John 1:10 says if we say we have not sinned. 1 John 1:10 switches gears from 1 John 1:8 in regards to time; John talks about the declaration on committing sin in verse 8 (which is present tense) to a declaration on committing sin being a past declaration (with verse 10). Verse 10 is saying there are people who said they have not sinned (past tense). This is clearly a gnostic belief. Why? Well, most believers today hold to the idea that they have sinned as a part of their old life before coming to Christ (Regardless of whether they are “OSAS,” a “Sin and still be saved” type believer, or a “Conditional Salvationist”). So this clearly is a “gnostic belief” that John was warning the brethren about (See 1 John 2:26). 1 John 1:8 is a present declaration of sin. It is saying if we say we have no sin when we do sin (present tense). This has to be the interpretative understanding of this verse because 1 John 2:4 says if we say we know Him and do not keep His commandments we are a liar and the truth is not in us. The OSAS's interpretation on 1 John 1:8 does not work because it conflicts with a normal reading on 1 John 2:3-4. You cannot always be in sin (breaking God's commands) as a part of 1 John 1:8 and yet also fulfill 1 John 2:3 that says we can have an assurance of knowing Him if we keep His commandments. Especially when 1 John 2:4 says we are a liar and the truth is not in us if we break his commandments. In other words, if the OSAS interpretation on 1 John 1:8 was true, then I would be damned if I do by obeying God's commands (1 John 1:8) and yet I would be damned if I don't by not obeying God's commands (1 John 2:4).

In fact, the New English Translation says this for 1 John 1:8,

"If we say we do not bear the guilt of sin, we are deceiving ourselves and the truth is not in us." (1 John 1:8 NET).​

In other words, this verse is saying that if a person sins and says they do not bear the guilt of sin (in the sense that they will not have to face any wrath or Judgment from God over their sin) then they would be deceiving themselves and the truth would not be in them. This is exactly what the Eternal Security proposes. They are saying that they do not bear the guilt of any sin (destruction of their soul and body in hell fire) if they do sin because they believe their future sins are paid for by Jesus. They are saying, they do not bear the guilt or the punishment of sin at the final Judgment because of their belief on Jesus. In short, 1 John 1:8 is a denial of the existence of sin on some level. “If we say we have no sin (in the sense that it does not exist) we deceive ourselves and the truth is not in us.” (1 John 1:8). Christian Scientists think sin is an illusion and does not exist at all. So this verse would apply to them. Eternal Security Proponents and those who deny that “Sin Can Separate a Believer from God” deny the existence of sin partially. They believe sin exists physically but they do not believe sin exists for them on a spiritual level because Jesus has forgiven them of all their sin by their belief on Jesus. In fact, to see just how silly your argument actually is for 1 John 1:8, you would have to believe that you are sinning right now at this very moment in order for such a verse to be true because 1 John 1:8 is speaking in the present tense.

John prescribes that we do not think that sin is an illusion, and we are automatically saved, but John is telling us to "sin not" and go to our advocate Jesus Christ (1 John 2:1), and confess our sins so as to be forgiven of sin and to be cleansed of all unrighteousness (1 John 1:9). How can you confess and be forgiven of sin if all your future sin is paid for? It makes no sense.

You can say that John is talking about a break of fellowship by one's sins and not a loss of salvation, but that would not be consistent with Scripture. 1 John 5:12 says he that has the Son has life, and he that does not have the Son does not have life.

Many today believe they can sin and God does not see their sin or wickedness because Jesus paid for their sins already (according to them).
However, the Bible does not agree with them.

Proverbs 30:20 says:
“Such is the way of an adulterous woman; she eateth, and wipeth her mouth, and saith, I have done no wickedness.”

Malachi 2:17 AMP
“You have wearied the LORD with your words. But you say, “In what way have we wearied Him?” In that you say, “Everyone who does evil is good in the sight of the LORD, and He delights in them,” or [by asking], “Where is the God of justice?”

Jeremiah 23:21-23
“I have not sent these prophets, yet they ran: I have not spoken to them, yet they prophesied. But if they had stood in my counsel, and had caused my people to hear my words, then they should have turned them from their evil way, and from the evil of their doings. Am I a God at hand, saith the LORD, and not a God afar off?”

Jude 1:4 NIV
“For certain individuals whose condemnation was written about b long ago have secretly slipped in among you. They are ungodly people, who pervert the grace of our God into a license for immorality and deny Jesus Christ our only Sovereign and Lord.”

Titus 1:16
“They profess that they know God, but by their works they deny him, being abominable, disobedient, and unfit for any good work.”
 
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As I recall he believes there are mortal sins and vienial sins. And usually when you're talking about sin, he's thinking of mortal sins like adultery, bearing false witness, stealing, murder etc. Therefore a Christian only commits those kinds of sins once in a while.
When I first learned of this topic, I was still wet behind the ears. I no longer refer to them as those names because those are Catholic terms. Note: I do not agree with Catholicism or the Orthodox churches. I just believe the Bible and the Bible alone plus the guiding of the Holy Spirit by His Word (The Bible). I prefer to simply say “Sins that lead unto death,” and “Sins that do not lead unto death(or shortened abbreviations of these words) because that is what the Scriptures actually say (Which many believers today do not actually believe).

Here is my explanation of the sins that do not lead unto death according to Scripture.

 
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I'm not aware that believers are sinless at any point in this life. So notions that sin only happens, maybe, sometimes for believers are patently false.

Are you sure that's the angle your position wants to take?
Things are not always the same in the life of a drunk. They may later join a drug program and they may even stumble on occasion in the program but they could in time overcome the sin of alcoholism or drug addiction and be free. So their occasional stumbling on their road of recovery does not determine the rest of their life if they became sober free for good at the end of their life. So pointing to the saints stumbling into sin on occasion is not an “Aha, see! We all sin, so why try to stop?” Such is insanity. God does not condone our sin. Try reading 2 Corinthians 7:1 in the KJV for a change.
 
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ozso

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When I first learned of this topic, I was still wet behind the ears. I no longer refer to them as those names because those are Catholic terms. Note: I do not agree with Catholicism or the Orthodox churches. I just believe the Bible and the Bible alone plus the guiding of the Holy Spirit by His Word (The Bible). I prefer to simply say “Sins that lead unto death,” and “Sins that do not lead unto death(or shortened abbreviations of these words) because that is what the Scriptures actually say (Which many believers today do not actually believe).

Here is my explanation of the sins that do not lead unto death according to Scripture.

Mortal and venial is how I was referring to them. I didn't recall your preferred terminology. Which I think is better because it's self explanatory.
 
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Mortal and venial is how I was referring to them. I didn't recall your preferred terminology. Which I think is better because it's self explanatory.
It’s all good. May the Lord Jesus bless you today.
 
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As I recall he believes there are mortal sins and vienial sins. And usually when you're talking about sin, he's thinking of mortal sins like adultery, bearing false witness, stealing, murder etc. Therefore a Christian only commits those kinds of sins once in a while.
Key snag being "commit" as opposed to evil thoughts defiling us, without external actions, per Mark 7:21-23, Matt 5:28, etc
 
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Things are not always the same in the life of a drunk. They may later join a drug program and they may even stumble on occasion in the program but they could in time overcome the sin of alcoholism or drug addiction and be free. So their occasional stumbling on their road of recovery does not determine the rest of their life if they became sober free for good at the end of their life. So pointing to the saints stumbling into sin on occasion is not an “Aha, see! We all sin, so why try to stop?” Such is insanity. God does not condone our sin. Try reading 2 Corinthians 7:1 in the KJV for a change.
The mind is never free from evil present within us, Mark 7:21-23, Romans 7:17-21

None of us are ever sinless in this present life. Not even for a nano second
 
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