The Works of the Law

[daq]

The meaning of this phrase, "the works of the Law", is manifestly evident in Galatians 3:1-3.

Galatians 3:1-3 KJV
1 O foolish Galatians, who hath bewitched you, that ye should not obey the truth, before whose eyes Jesus Christ hath been evidently set forth, crucified among you?
2 This only would I learn of you, Received ye the Spirit by the works of the law, or by the hearing of faith?
3 Are ye so foolish? having begun in the Spirit, are ye now made perfect by the flesh?

Galatians 3:1-3 ASV
1 O foolish Galatians, who did bewitch you, before whose eyes Jesus Christ was openly set forth crucified?
2 This only would I learn from you, Received ye the Spirit by the works of the law, or by the hearing of faith?
3 Are ye so foolish? having begun in the Spirit, are ye now perfected in the flesh?

The "works of the Law" are therefore based entirely on an incorrect physical and outward understanding of the Torah according to the flesh. The Torah is spiritual, as Paul also states in Romans 7:14a, and therefore the "works of the Law" are not the Torah itself, but rather, an incorrect outward and physical minded reading, understanding, and interpretation of the Torah.

 

[guevaraj]

The "works of the Law" are therefore based entirely on an incorrect physical and outward understanding of the Torah according to the flesh. The Torah is spiritual, as Paul also states in Romans 7:14a, and therefore the "works of the Law" are not the Torah itself, but rather, an incorrect outward and physical minded reading, understanding, and interpretation of the Torah.

Brother, I think the following passages are evidence of what you are saying. Where human law in Judaism contradicted God's law.

Jesus replied, “You hypocrites! Isaiah was right when he prophesied about you, for he wrote, ‘These people honor me with their lips, but their hearts are far from me. Their worship is a farce, for they teach man-made ideas as commandments from God.’ For you ignore God’s law/commandment and substitute your own tradition.” Then he said, “You skillfully sidestep God’s law(nomos)/commandment(entolé) in order to hold on to your own tradition. For instance, Moses gave you this law(nomos)/commandment(entolé) from God: ‘Honor your father and mother,’ and ‘Anyone who speaks disrespectfully of father or mother must be put to death.’ But you say it is all right for people to say to their parents, ‘Sorry, I can’t help you. For I have vowed to give to God what I would have given to you.’ In this way, you let them disregard their needy parents. And so you cancel the word of God in order to hand down your own tradition. And this is only one example among many others.” (Mark 7:6-13 NLT fixed)​

When Paul uses law alone, he refers to all the laws of Judaism, including human law which Jesus has freed us from to more fully follow Jesus' Eleven Commandments.

Well then, since God’s grace has set us free from the law (of humans in Judaism), does that mean we can go on sinning (disobeying the Eleven Commandments)? Of course not (don't misunderstand God's grace in the Father putting Jesus as our High Priest)! Don’t you realize that you become the slave of whatever you choose to obey (sin or God)? You can be a slave to sin (disobeying the Eleven Commandments), which leads to death (like Judaism's sabotage of not obeying "all" of God's Ten Commandments), or you can choose to obey God (Eleven Commandments that remove sin), which leads to righteous living (freedom from sin). Thank God (Jesus' many forgivenesses as our High Priest allowing us to grow in obedience through practice of the Eleven Commandments that remove sin)! Once you were slaves of sin (disobeying the Eleven Commandments), but now you wholeheartedly obey this teaching we have given you (Eleven Commandments). Now you are free from your slavery to sin (when you obey Jesus' Eleven Commandments), and you have become slaves to righteous living (obeying the Eleven Commandments). (Romans 6:15-18 NLT overlaid with commentary)​

United in our hope for the soon return of Jesus, Jorge

 

[Clare73]

The meaning of this phrase, "the works of the Law", is manifestly evident in Galatians 3:1-3.

Galatians 3:1-3 KJV
1 O foolish Galatians, who hath bewitched you, that ye should not obey the truth, before whose eyes Jesus Christ hath been evidently set forth, crucified among you?
2 This only would I learn of you, Received ye the Spirit by the works of the law, or by the hearing of faith?
3 Are ye so foolish? having begun in the Spirit, are ye now made perfect by the flesh?

Galatians 3:1-3 ASV
1 O foolish Galatians, who did bewitch you, before whose eyes Jesus Christ was openly set forth crucified?
2 This only would I learn from you, Received ye the Spirit by the works of the law, or by the hearing of faith?
3 Are ye so foolish? having begun in the Spirit, are ye now perfected in the flesh?

The "works of the Law" are therefore based entirely on an incorrect physical and outward understanding of the Torah according to the flesh.

Context.
The "works of the law" refer to the Levitical (ceremonial) laws (sacrifices, food laws, defilements, cleansings, etc.) which were abolished on the cross (Eph 3:15).

 

[daq]

Brother, I think the following passages are evidence of what you are saying. Where human law in Judaism contradicted God's law.

Jesus replied, “You hypocrites! Isaiah was right when he prophesied about you, for he wrote, ‘These people honor me with their lips, but their hearts are far from me. Their worship is a farce, for they teach man-made ideas as commandments from God.’ For you ignore God’s law/commandment and substitute your own tradition.” Then he said, “You skillfully sidestep God’s law(nomos)/commandment(entolé) in order to hold on to your own tradition. For instance, Moses gave you this law(nomos)/commandment(entolé) from God: ‘Honor your father and mother,’ and ‘Anyone who speaks disrespectfully of father or mother must be put to death.’ But you say it is all right for people to say to their parents, ‘Sorry, I can’t help you. For I have vowed to give to God what I would have given to you.’ In this way, you let them disregard their needy parents. And so you cancel the word of God in order to hand down your own tradition. And this is only one example among many others.” (Mark 7:6-13 NLT fixed)​

When Paul uses law alone, he refers to all the laws of Judaism, including human law which Jesus has freed us from to more fully follow Jesus' Eleven Commandments.

Well then, since God’s grace has set us free from the law (of humans in Judaism), does that mean we can go on sinning (disobeying the Eleven Commandments)? Of course not (don't misunderstand God's grace in the Father putting Jesus as our High Priest)! Don’t you realize that you become the slave of whatever you choose to obey (sin or God)? You can be a slave to sin (disobeying the Eleven Commandments), which leads to death (like Judaism's sabotage of not obeying "all" of God's Ten Commandments), or you can choose to obey God (Eleven Commandments that remove sin), which leads to righteous living (freedom from sin). Thank God (Jesus' many forgivenesses as our High Priest allowing us to grow in obedience through practice of the Eleven Commandments that remove sin)! Once you were slaves of sin (disobeying the Eleven Commandments), but now you wholeheartedly obey this teaching we have given you (Eleven Commandments). Now you are free from your slavery to sin (when you obey Jesus' Eleven Commandments), and you have become slaves to righteous living (obeying the Eleven Commandments). (Romans 6:15-18 NLT overlaid with commentary)​

United in our hope for the soon return of Jesus, Jorge

Well, Amen to the passages, but it's not now just ten or eleven: it's the whole Torah because the Torah is spiritual. When Paul states this in Romans 7:14a, ("For we know that the Torah is spiritual"), how is it that he knows this? He knows it from the Testimony of the Meshiah which we now find written in the Gospel accounts: for before his appointed time, on the road to Damascus, Paul surely did not know this, at least not the way it is taught by the Master in the Testimony now recorded for us in the Gospel accounts.

No doubt you believe the writings of Paul apply to yourself, correct?, (surely you do?).
Hear therefore an admonishment from Paul unto all those to whom he writes:

1 Cor 5:6-8 KJV
6 Your glorying is not good. Know ye not that a little leaven leaveneth the whole lump?
7 Purge out therefore the old leaven, that ye may be a new lump, as ye are unleavened. For even Christ our passover is sacrificed for us:
8 Therefore let us keep the feast, not with old leaven, neither with the leaven of malice and wickedness; but with the unleavened bread of sincerity and truth.

1 Corinthians 5:6-8 ASV
6 Your glorying is not good. Know ye not that a little leaven leaveneth the whole lump?
7 Purge out the old leaven, that ye may be a new lump, even as ye are unleavened. For our passover also hath been sacrificed, even Christ:
8 wherefore let us keep the feast, not with old leaven, neither with the leaven of malice and wickedness, but with the unleavened bread of sincerity and truth.

Paul is admonishing the reader to observe-keep the feast of the Pesakh, (Passover), but he is not admonishing the reader to observe the feast according to the physical and outward natural-minded understanding of the Sanhedrin, Pharisees, Sadducees, and Scribes.

When is the last time you heard someone say that unleavened bread contains sincerity and truth? as Paul says herein? We know from the Testimony of the Master that leaven is used metaphorically for doctrine having been corrupted with the teachings and commandments of men, (Beware of the leaven of the Pharisees, of the Sadducees, and of Herod, Matthew 16:6-12, (Mark 8:15 contains Herod)).

 

[daq]

Context.
The "works of the law" refer to the Levitical (ceremonial) laws

I will need to see scripture evidence for your assertion. Please be sure not to force Paul into a contradictory stance with what is plainly revealed in the OP passage quote, (Galatians 3:1-3).

 

[Clare73]

I will need to see scripture evidence for your assertion. Please be sure not to force Paul into a contradictory stance with what is plainly revealed in the OP passage quote, (Galatians 3:1-3).

In the context of the situation prior in Gal 2:11-15, where the Gentiles were being required to follow Jewish customs; e.g., dietary restrictions, and likewise being "bewitched" (Gal 3:1) by the Judaizers who required circumcision for salvation (Gal 2:12), neither of which were the Decalogue, but were ceremonial laws, Paul reminds them that they did not receive the Holy Spirit by (ceremonial) law keeping, but by faith (Gal 3:2).

 

[daq]

In the context of the situation prior in Gal 2:11-15, where the Gentiles were being required to follow Jewish customs; e.g., dietary restrictions, and likewise being "bewitched" (Gal 3:1) by the Judaizers who required circumcision for salvation (Gal 2:12), neither of which were the Decalogue, but were ceremonial laws, Paul reminds them that they did not receive the Holy Spirit by (ceremonial) law keeping, but by faith (Gal 3:2).

None of this disproves the simple and logical fact of the matter as it is stated in the passage quoted in the OP:

This only would I learn from you, Received ye the Spirit by the works of the law, or by the hearing of faith? Are ye so foolish? having begun in the Spirit, are ye now perfected in the flesh?

By the way it is worded, by default, attempting to be perfected in the flesh or by the flesh surely means that such a one is attempting to follow the natural-minded outward and physical interpretations of the Sanhedrin, Pharisees, Sadducees, and Scribes, which is clearly, (by the Testimony of the Meshiah in the Gospel accounts), the old way of the old man nature which cannot please Elohim.

 

[Soyeong]

The meaning of this phrase, "the works of the Law", is manifestly evident in Galatians 3:1-3.

Galatians 3:1-3 KJV
1 O foolish Galatians, who hath bewitched you, that ye should not obey the truth, before whose eyes Jesus Christ hath been evidently set forth, crucified among you?
2 This only would I learn of you, Received ye the Spirit by the works of the law, or by the hearing of faith?
3 Are ye so foolish? having begun in the Spirit, are ye now made perfect by the flesh?

Galatians 3:1-3 ASV
1 O foolish Galatians, who did bewitch you, before whose eyes Jesus Christ was openly set forth crucified?
2 This only would I learn from you, Received ye the Spirit by the works of the law, or by the hearing of faith?
3 Are ye so foolish? having begun in the Spirit, are ye now perfected in the flesh?

The "works of the Law" are therefore based entirely on an incorrect physical and outward understanding of the Torah according to the flesh. The Torah is spiritual, as Paul also states in Romans 7:14a, and therefore the "works of the Law" are not the Torah itself, but rather, an incorrect outward and physical minded reading, understanding, and interpretation of the Torah.

In Acts 5:32, the Spirit has been given to those who obey God, so obedience to God is part of the way to receive the Spirit, however, Galatians 3:1-3 denies that "works of the law" are part of the way to receive the Spirit, therefore that phrase does not refer to obedience to God. In Romans 3:27-31, Paul contrasted a law of works with a law of faith, so works of the law are of works while he said that our faith upholds God's law, so it is of faith, and a law that our faith upholds can't be referring to the same thing as the works of the law that are not of faith in Galatians 3:10-12.

 

[daq]

In Acts 5:32, the Spirit has been given to those who obey God, so obedience to God is part of the way to receive the Spirit, however, Galatians 3:1-3 denies that "works of the law" are part of the way to receive the Spirit, therefore that phrase does not refer to obedience to God. In Romans 3:27-31, Paul contrasted a law of works with a law of faith, so works of the law are of works while he said that our faith upholds God's law, so it is of faith, and a law that our faith upholds can't be referring to the same thing as the works of the law that are not of faith in Galatians 3:10-12.

According to the passage in the OP, Galatians 3:1-3, "the works of the Law" are clearly works of the flesh, otherwise there is no reason for Paul to frame the statement in the manner in which he does.

The Torah is spiritual, (Rom 7:14a), while "the works of the Law" are deeds of the body and works of the flesh based on faulty interpretations and an erroneous understanding of the Torah. One cannot perform or be obedient to words and commandments that he or she does not even understand: therefore the first word of the Shema, the first and great commandment, is HEAR, (O Yisrael).

 

[Soyeong]

In the context of the situation prior in Gal 2:11-15, where the Gentiles were being required to follow Jewish customs; e.g., dietary restrictions, and likewise being "bewitched" (Gal 3:1) by the Judaizers who required circumcision for salvation (Gal 2:12), neither of which were the Decalogue, but were ceremonial laws, Paul reminds them that they did not receive the Holy Spirit by (ceremonial) law keeping, but by faith (Gal 3:2).

Galatians 2:11-15 notably doesn't mention anything about dietary restrictions. Either Paul one spoke against circumcision for incorrect reasons or according to Galatians 5:2, Paul caused Christ to be of no value when he had him circumcised in Acts 16:3 right after the Jerusalem Council and Christ is of no value to roughly 80% of the men in the US. In Acts 15:1, men from Judea were wanting to required Gentiles to become circumcised first in order to become saved, however, that was never the purpose for which God commanded circumcision, so the Jerusalem Council upheld God's law by correctly ruling against requiring circumcision for an incorrect reason. The Jerusalem Council did not have the authority to countermand God, so they should not be interpreted as speaking against obeying what God has commanded for the purposes for which He commanded it.

If the list of laws that you have in mind when you speak about the ceremonial law is not identical to the list of laws that Paul had in mind in Galatians 3:2, then you have misunderstood him, so in order to avoid misunderstanding him you need to establish a list of which laws he consider to be part of the ceremonial law, however, Bible never lists which laws are ceremonial laws and never even refers to that as being a category of law. If a group of people were to create lists of which laws they considered to be ceremonial, then they would create a wide variety of lists that has not been derived from what is directly stated in the Bible and those people should not interpret Paul as referring to a list of laws that they've just created.

 

[Leaf473]

The meaning of this phrase, "the works of the Law", is manifestly evident in Galatians 3:1-3.

Galatians 3:1-3 KJV
1 O foolish Galatians, who hath bewitched you, that ye should not obey the truth, before whose eyes Jesus Christ hath been evidently set forth, crucified among you?
2 This only would I learn of you, Received ye the Spirit by the works of the law, or by the hearing of faith?
3 Are ye so foolish? having begun in the Spirit, are ye now made perfect by the flesh?

Galatians 3:1-3 ASV
1 O foolish Galatians, who did bewitch you, before whose eyes Jesus Christ was openly set forth crucified?
2 This only would I learn from you, Received ye the Spirit by the works of the law, or by the hearing of faith?
3 Are ye so foolish? having begun in the Spirit, are ye now perfected in the flesh?

The "works of the Law" are therefore based entirely on an incorrect physical and outward understanding of the Torah according to the flesh. The Torah is spiritual, as Paul also states in Romans 7:14a, and therefore the "works of the Law" are not the Torah itself, but rather,

...an incorrect outward and physical minded reading, understanding, and interpretation of the Torah.

This looks to me like an outward, physical reading of the Torah. Does it look differently to you?

Bible Gateway passage: Luke 2:24 - New American Standard Bible

and to offer a sacrifice according to what has been stated in the Law of the Lord: “A PAIR OF TURTLEDOVES OR TWO YOUNG DOVES.”

www.biblegateway.com

 

[Clare73]

None of this disproves the simple and logical fact of the matter as it is stated in the passage quoted in the OP:

This only would I learn from you, Received ye the Spirit by the works of the law, or by the hearing of faith? Are ye so foolish? having begun in the Spirit, are ye now perfected in the flesh?

It absolutely demonstrates they did not misunderstand the law itself, but rather misunderstood its purpose.
It was not given to make righteous, it was given to reveal sin (Ro 3:20), to lead them to Christ for righteousness (Gal 3:24), rather than their own works.

By the way it is worded, by default, attempting to be perfected in the flesh or by the flesh surely means that such a one is attempting to follow the natural-minded outward and physical interpretations of the Sanhedrin, Pharisees, Sadducees, and Scribes, which is clearly, (by the Testimony of the Meshiah in the Gospel accounts), the old way of the old man nature which cannot please Elohim.

No, it surely does not.
In the NT, Paul opposes the work of the flesh (human works) to the work of the Holy Spirit in the regenerated.
In Gal, he is addressing their trying to be righteous by human works, rather than it being a work of grace through faith.

 

[Clare73]

Galatians 2:11-15 notably doesn't mention anything about dietary restrictions.

By Jewish dietary restrictions, I am referring to not eating with the (unclean) Gentiles (Gal 2:12).

Either Paul one spoke against circumcision for incorrect reasons or according to Galatians 5:2, Paul caused Christ to be of no value when he had him circumcised in Acts 16:3 right after the Jerusalem Council and Christ is of no value to roughly 80% of the men in the US. In Acts 15:1, men from Judea were wanting to required Gentiles to become circumcised first in order to become saved, however, that was never the purpose for which God commanded circumcision, so the Jerusalem Council upheld God's law by correctly ruling against requiring circumcision for an incorrect reason. The Jerusalem Council did not have the authority to countermand God,

The Jerusalem council of apostles spoke for Christ (Lk 10:16), and to reject what the apostle say is to reject what Christ says.

so they should not be interpreted as speaking against obeying what God has commanded for the purposes for which He commanded it.

Agreed. . .so why do you do so in not obeying all the laws of Lev 12:1-5, 15:1-12, 16-30?

As in the ordinances regarding defilement by food (Mt 15:10, Mk 7:19, Ro 14:14, 20, Heb 9:10, 1 Co 8:7-8, 10:25-29, 1 Tim 4:3-5), childbirth (Lev 12:2, 15:19), houses, clothing, sexual intercourse (Lev 15:16-18, Ex 19:15, 1 Sa 21:4), all bodily discharges without exception (Lev 15:1-12, 19-30), etc.
The temporary regulations of the temporary old covenant (Heb 8:13) administered by the temporary Levitical priesthood (Heb 7:12) are replaced in the NT with the eternal priesthood (Heb 7:17-21) and new covenant (Lk 22:20) of Christ Jesus.

If the list of laws that you have in mind when you speak about the ceremonial law is not identical to the list of laws that Paul had in mind in Galatians 3:2, then you have misunderstood him,

It is you who misunderstands him.
Paul is referring to the "circumcision" law in Gal 3:2, as he was referring to "cleanliness" laws in Gal 2 and "calendrical" laws in Ga 4:8-11, none of which were part of the Decalogue, and for easy categorization, I refer to as ceremonial laws.

so in order to avoid misunderstanding him you need to establish a list of which laws he consider to be part of the ceremonial law,

That would be the laws governing religious practices.

The Mosaic laws can be categorized into three groups:
the moral (Declogue),
the civil (governing society) and
the ceremonial (governing religious practices).
In Gal 3, Paul is dealing with the ceremonial.

however, Bible never lists which laws are ceremonial laws and never even refers to that as being a category of law. If a group of people were to create lists of which laws they considered to be ceremonial, then they would create a wide variety of lists that has not been derived from what is directly stated in the Bible and those people should not interpret Paul as referring to a list of laws that they've just created.

 

[Soyeong]

By Jewish dietary restrictions, I am referring to not eating with the (unclean) Gentiles (Gal 2:12).

In Acts 10:28, Peter spoke about a law that forbade Jews to visit or associate with Gentile, which is not a law commanded by God in the Torah.

The Jerusalem council of apostles spoke for Christ (Lk 10:16), and to reject what the apostle say is to reject what Christ says.

In Deuteronomy 13:1-5, the way that God instructed His people to determine that someone is a false prophet who was not speaking for Him was if they taught against obeying the Mosaic Law, so if you think that Jesus or the Apostles did that, then according to God you should consider them to be false prophets.

Agreed. . .so why do you do so in not obeying all the laws of Lev 12:1-5, 15:1-12, 16-30?

I did not speak against obeying what God has commanded.

It is you who misunderstands him.
Paul is referring to the "circumcision: law in Gal 3:2, as he was referring to "cleanliness" laws in Gal 2 and "calendrical" laws in Ga 4:8-11, none of which were part of the Decalogue, and for easy categorization, I refer to as ceremonial laws.

It was referring neither of those things. In Galatians 4:8, Paul addressed those verses to those who formerly did not know God, so he was addressing former pagans who were not formerly following God’s law for how to know Him. So the days that they were returning to were in the context of returning to paganism, not God’s holy days.

You should be more careful not to mistake what was only said against following the teachings of men as being against obeying the commandments of God. Paul was a servant of God, so should not make sense to you to think that he was criticizing them for obeying what God has commanded in accordance with the example that Christ set for us to follow.

That would be the laws governing religious practices.
The Mosaic laws can be categorized into three groups:
the moral (Declogue),
the civil (governing society) and
the ceremonial (governing religious practices).
In Gal 3, Paul is dealing with the ceremonial.

Again, the Bible never specifically lists which laws are in regard to religious practices. People are free to categorize the Mosaic laws into however many groups that they want and to decide for themselves which laws they think best fit into which groups, but just because we can do that does not establish that the authors of the Bible agreed about which laws best fit into which groups or even that they used the same groups. If a group of people were to create lists of which of the Mosaic laws they considered to be moral, civil, or ceremonial, then there would be a wide variety of lists. For example, some people consider just the Ten Commandments to be the moral law while others consider the laws against rape and kidnapping to also be moral laws, and some people consider the Sabbath to be a moral law while others consider it to be a ceremonial law. None of these people should assume that the way that they have chosen to categorize the Mosaic laws in the same way as the authors of the Bible.

I could categorize God’s laws into groups based on which part of the body is most commonly used to obey/disobey them, such as the law against theft being a hand law, but that doesn’t establish that the authors of the Bible used the same groups, and even if they did, it doesn’t establish that they agreed with which laws best fit into each group, such as they might argue that committing theft more commonly involves moving our feet, so that should be a foot law. So if I were to interpret the authors of the Bible as referring to a group of laws that I had created, such as claiming that Galatians 3 is dealing with foot laws, then I would be making the same sort of error that you are making.

The category of moral law implies that we can be acting morally while disobeying the laws that are not in that category, however, there is no example where disobedience to any of God’s laws is considered by the Bible to be moral, nor do I see a reason to think that it can ever be moral to disobey God. Morality is in regard to what ought to be done and we ought to obey God, so all of His laws are inherently moral laws. Legislators give laws according to what they think ought to be done, so for you to claim that some of God’s laws are not moral laws is to claim that God made a moral error about what ought to be done when He gave those laws, which is also to claim to have greater moral knowledge than God.

 

[daq]

This looks to me like an outward, physical reading of the Torah. Does it look differently to you?

Bible Gateway passage: Luke 2:24 - New American Standard Bible

and to offer a sacrifice according to what has been stated in the Law of the Lord: “A PAIR OF TURTLEDOVES OR TWO YOUNG DOVES.”

www.biblegateway.com

Yes, differently: I do not see what you see.

[13] And when their days of purifications were fulfilled, they brought him to Yerushalem to stand before Κ̅Ω, as it is written in the Torah of Κ̅Υ, and to offer sacrifice according to what is stated in the Torah of Κ̅Υ, A pair of turtledoves or two young pigeons.
[14] [Turtledove the first:] And there was a certain one in Yerushalem whose name was Shimeon, and this man a Tzaddik and pious one, awaiting the consolation of Yisrael: and the Holy Spirit was upon him.
[15] And it was divinely revealed to him by the Spirit of the Holy One that he would not see death before having seen τον Χ̅Ρ Κ̅Υ.
[16] And he came in the Spirit into the temple also, with the parents, bringing in the manchild Ι̅Η to do according to the custom of the Torah concerning him.
[17] And he received him into his arms, and blessed τον Θ̅Ν, and said, Now may your servant depart in peace, according to your Word, O Master:
[18] For my eyes have seen Your salvation which You have prepared before the face of all the people, a light of revelation for the nations, and the glory of Your people Yisrael.
[19] And his father and mother were wondering at the things spoken concerning him, and Shimeon blessed them, and he said to Maryah his mother,
[20] Behold, this one is set for the downfall and rising again of many in Yisrael, and for a sign spoken against: and of you, moreover, a rhomphaia shall pass through your own soul, that the thoughts of many hearts may be revealed.
[21] [Turtledove the second:] And there was also Ĥannah the Prophetess, a daughter of [the school of] Phanuel, and she was well advance in many days, having lived with a husband seven years from her maidenhood.
[22] And she had been a widow even unto eighty four years, who departed not from the naos, fasting and petitioning, ministering night and day.
[23] And she stood in her hour, confessing in turn unto Θ̅Ω, and she spoke concerning him toward all those patiently awaiting the redemption of Yerushalem.
[24] And when they had completed all things according to the Torah of Κ̅Υ, they returned to the Galil, to their own city Nazareth:

Ascending offerings are PRAYERS: not burning animal flesh.

 

[BobRyan]

The meaning of this phrase, "the works of the Law", is manifestly evident in Galatians 3:1-3.

Galatians 3:1-3 KJV
1 O foolish Galatians, who hath bewitched you, that ye should not obey the truth, before whose eyes Jesus Christ hath been evidently set forth, crucified among you?
2 This only would I learn of you, Received ye the Spirit by the works of the law, or by the hearing of faith?
3 Are ye so foolish? having begun in the Spirit, are ye now made perfect by the flesh?

Galatians 3:1-3 ASV
1 O foolish Galatians, who did bewitch you, before whose eyes Jesus Christ was openly set forth crucified?
2 This only would I learn from you, Received ye the Spirit by the works of the law, or by the hearing of faith?
3 Are ye so foolish? having begun in the Spirit, are ye now perfected in the flesh?

The "works of the Law" are therefore based entirely on an incorrect physical and outward understanding of the Torah according to the flesh. The Torah is spiritual, as Paul also states in Romans 7:14a, and therefore the "works of the Law" are not the Torah itself, but rather, an incorrect outward and physical minded reading, understanding, and interpretation of the Torah.

Let's take a simple example of the Law -- "Do not take God's name in vain"

When a born again Christian obeys that Law it is because under the New Covenant "the Law is written on the heart" Heb 8:6-12.

When a lost person tries to do it - as if not taking God's name in vain would earn them salvation - they are making a mistake. Even a good deed when done "apart from faith" - apart from the New Covenant born-again condition of the saved person - is not of value in the eyes of heaven. So it is fine for the lost person to not-take-God's name in vain but they still need salvation and should not fool themselves that simply not taking God's name in vain will solve the problem for a lost person.

 

[BobRyan]

When Paul uses law alone, he refers to all the laws of Judaism, including human law which Jesus has freed us from to more fully follow Jesus' Eleven Commandments.

Well then, since God’s grace has set us free from the law (of humans in Judaism), does that mean we can go on sinning (disobeying the Eleven Commandments)? Of course not (don't misunderstand God's grace in the Father putting Jesus as our High Priest)! Don’t you realize that you become the slave of whatever you choose to obey (sin or God)? ​

?? "The 11 commandments?"

 

[Soyeong]

Agreed. . .it was a necessary conclusion if one was to stay ceremonially clean.

No, that would be incompatible with Israel’s purpose of being a light to the nations.

Clare73 said:
Agreed. . .so why do you do the same in not obeying all the laws of Lev 12:1-5, 15:1-12, 16-30?

Straw man.
Is that intellectually honest?

If anything, you’re loaded question is not intellectually honest.

Clare73 said:
It is you who misunderstands him.
Paul is referring to the "circumcision: law in Gal 3:2, as he was referring to "cleanliness" laws in Gal 2 and "calendrical" laws in Ga 4:8-11, none of which were part of the Decalogue, and for easy categorization, I refer to as ceremonial laws.

Is that intellectually honest?
Paul is addressing people who do know God (Gal 4:9), and are turning back to law keeping (Gal 4:10) for righteousness (Gal 1:6-9).

Thy speech doth betray od, you were slaves to those who by nature are not gods. 9 But now that you know God—or rather are known by God—how is it that you are turning back to those weak and miserable forces ? Do you wish to be enslaved by them all over again?

In Exodus 33:13, Moses wanted God to be gracious to him by teaching him to walk in His way that he might know Him and Israel to, so the Mosaic Law is God’s instructions for how to know Him. This means that In Galatians 4:8-11, “Formerly, when you did not know God, you were slaves to those who by nature are not gods” refers to when they were not obeying the Mosaic Law and were slavers to idols while “But now that you know God—or rather are known by God” refers to them now obeying the Mosaic Law. There was not a time when they were formerly obeying God’s instructions for how to know Him, so Paul could not have been criticizing them for returning to keeping those institutions.

 

[Clare73]

In Acts 10:28, Peter spoke about a law that forbade Jews to visit or associate with Gentile, which is not a law commanded by God in the Torah.

Agreed. . .it was a necessary conclusion if one was to stay ceremonially clean.

In Deuteronomy 13:1-5, the way that God instructed His people to determine that someone is a false prophet who was not speaking for Him was if they taught against obeying the Mosaic Law, so if you think that Jesus or the Apostles did that, then according to God you should consider them to be false prophets.

Clare73 said:
Agreed. . .so are you obeying all the Mosaic laws rather than listening to false prophets who say they no longer apply in the NT?
As in the ordinances regarding defilement by food (Mt 15:10, Mk 7:19, Ro 14:14, 20, Heb 9:10, 1 Co 8:7-8, 10:25-29, 1 Tim 4:3-5), childbirth (Lev 12:2, 15:19), houses, clothing, sexual intercourse (Lev 15:16-18, Ex 19:15, 1 Sa 21:4), all bodily discharges without exception (Lev 15:1-12, 19-30), etc.
The temporary regulations of the temporary old covenant (Heb 8:13) administered by the temporary Levitical priesthood (Heb 7:12) are replaced in the NT with the eternal priesthood (Heb 7:17-21) and new covenant (Lk 22:20) of Christ Jesus.

The new covenant (2 Co 3:6, Heb 8:6, 9:15) people of God in the NT time of reformation /new order (Heb 9:10) are no longer under old Mosaic covenant regulations.

I did not speak against obeying what God has commanded.

Straw man.

Clare73 said:
It is you who misunderstands him.
Paul is referring to the "circumcision law in Gal 3:2, as he was referring to "cleanliness" laws in Gal 2 and "calendrical" laws in Ga 4:8-11, none of which were part of the Decalogue, and for easy categorization, I refer to as ceremonial laws.

It was referring neither of those things. In Galatians 4:8, Paul addressed those verses to those who formerly did not know God, so he was addressing former pagans who were not formerly following God’s law for how to know Him. So the days that they were returning to were in the context of returning to paganism, not God’s holy days.
You should be more careful not to mistake what was only said against following the teachings of men as being against obeying the commandments of God. Paul was a servant of God, so should not make sense to you to think that he was criticizing them for obeying what God has commanded in accordance with the example that Christ set for us to follow.

No, that would be incompatible with Israel’s purpose of being a light to the nations.

You need to brush up on the OT.

 

[Soyeong]

You need to brush up on the OT.

See Isaiah 49:6.