concretecamper
I stand with Candice.
- Nov 23, 2013
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Not sure if you intentionally ignoring the New Testament or not, so I'll ask you directly.no the books we have are infallible, what I'm saying is there may have been more inspired texts that didn't make the cut in the Old Testament because they just took the list of what the Jews considered Inspired and used that. The Jews may have missed things.
Because they were left out, over time I think that those books may have had error come into them.
IE say that the book of Enoch that existed at the time of Christ, which Jesus and the apostles referenced (and Jude directly quoted) was Inspired, it contains a lot of new testament language and doctrine, and a ton of references to "the Elect One" referring to Messiah, referring to Jesus, and treating Him as God. Because of the doctrines of the Messiah actually being explicitly divine, the Jewish councils who decided which books were part of their old testament bible excluded the book of Enoch because obviously they don't believe that Messiah will be divine. The Catholic Church just took what the Jews considered to be Inspired for the Old Testament, and then selected texts from the apostolic age writings to be considered the New Testament, as a result a book from the Old Testament era that contains a lot of new testament doctrine and a lot about Jesus doesn't make the cut. It's not faithfully preserved, so what copies exist deteriorate and when it is copied it's not copied as scripture so error starts finding its way in.
So over 1000 years later, the book we can find for Enoch, is now corrupted by over 1000 years of error.
Does that make sense? That because it wasn't selected to be in the bible it wasn't preserved properly and now something called by that name is loaded with error?
Do you accept the infallible decision of fallible men that the 27 books of the NT are infallible?
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