Thanks for your reply. That’s interesting. If you could post some links to articles that discuss this, I’ll find time to read them. I’m always up for learning something new.
Well not knowing exactly what the question is; I don't have any articles to point to. It's a logical assumption upon the humility of man that humans understand that we are not omniscient.
Now how omniscience operates in God? There's degrees of amount of understanding that we can grasp; yet some of that is still human hypothesis.
Some of the framework of these kinds of questions has to be set in defining what it means to be God.
Properties of the Entity that God is (logically has to be) = omniscience, omnipotence, omnipresence, immortal, and having no beginning and no end. And out of those properties one would have to conclude that God is wholly holy, moral and does not contain evil as part of the essence of the entity that God is. An entity divided against it's own intentions isn't capable of getting anything done. So the fact that we are here having this conversation would prove there is no evil in God.
Now where did evil come from? I have a hypothesis about that. (Which I don't know if my hypothesis is correct or not; but it makes logical sense. And I don't know if it's correct because I simply don't have enough information.
Which gets back to the Creator / created paradigm. How does an Entity that is omniscient, omnipotent, omnipresent, immortal and has no beginning and no end impart an explanation of something He created of what it's like to be God? It's not possible to stuff infinity into a creation that has limitations (because it's not infinite). Does that make sense?
Then there's the factor of the free will of God to share with creation what He desires to be made known; which of course isn't omniscience. Because the creation isn't capable of being omniscient.
So how does a God who knows everything account for the fact that He knew the fall would happen and what does it mean when we see statements like "It repented the Lord to have made man on the earth" (or something of that venue - I know I'm paraphrasing).
The first answer that pops into my head regarding that question is that God is a real living entity. He's not just a concept that can't "feel" or "interact" or "direct". And in the Christian concept of Trinity; God is a relational Entity. He conveys "Self" as "Father", "Son" and "Spirit". Now why God is a "Trinity" and not an... "Hexagonally" or any other number? LOL I don't know. One could form a theory that might give a reasonable answer to that question; but again, we're limited on our information.
So because God is a living real entity; as it applies to our ability to receive information He wants us to know; He conveys the reality of His relational existence through an anthropomorphic statement about repentance and sorrow. Which obviously He really feels; which makes sense because an omniscient and omnipresent God would know what it's like to feel pain.
Would we say that's part of possessing the knowledge of good and evil? (It could be?) Did God feel pain before He ever created anything? I would say that's unlikely because the only thing that existed was Himself and having no "shadow of turning", no darkness and no evil; He would not have had a reason to experience the feeling of pain.
Obviously God possess the knowledge of good and evil because He's omniscient. But that knowledge is not capable of corrupting Him because of everything else that He also is. (omnipotent, omnipresent, immortal and eternal).
I don't know if that sheds any light on your question; but it is a degree of information that likely could be expanded upon.