Ah, I didn't know the definition of first cause. I agree with that God is the first cause and is uncaused. God created soul and free will is an attribute to soul, from my thinking.
Even
that necessarily (logically) implies causation to any result, such as the choice any soul makes. If God caused (made) the soul, everything that soul does is caused. And thus 'free will' must be defined. Nothing that God caused can be uncaused. (God cannot have even 'caused himself' as some claim. He is self-existent —not self-created.)
Zoidar, you have my respect and admiration. I don't wish to belittle the thinking behind your references to 'soul'. But I don't see where they are derived from Scripture. They sound not only like guesswork, but also unlike Scripture. You may be right, that 'freewill is an attribute to soul', but what really does that mean, then, if you are right? What do you mean by, "I think the First cause is soul." I'm not asking this to be contentious, but I don't understand where that's going or where it is coming from. (lol, sounds almost like John 3!)
I think you need to show that then from
Romans 8 that "they CANNOT choose God, but will always choose according to their enmity to God, apart from God's work in them."
Fair enough. Romans 8 says that the 'mind of the flesh' (or variously, the 'natural mind', 'those dominated by the sinful nature', 'those who live according to the flesh', 'they that are after the flesh', 'those being according to the flesh', 'those who walk in the flesh', 'those who are in the flesh', 'carnally minded', 'controlled by their earthly natures', 'sensually affected', 'those who live by the corrupt nature', 'those who are in the realm of the flesh' etc. — (I think there can be little doubt who this is referring to: those who have inherited Adam's sin nature, and are not yet spiritually alive, according to verse 5 and 6)) in verse 5 is said to
be set on what the flesh desires, and NOT THE SPIRIT. Verse 6 says "the mind governed by the flesh
is death". Verse 7 says, "the mind governed by the flesh is hostile to God; it
does not submit to God’s law, nor can it do so" (Literal Standard and KJV "at enmity with God"). Verse 8 says, "those who are in the realm of the flesh
cannot please God." It is not a logical leap to say that those who "accept Christ" are pleasing him. Therefore, one must have the natural mind, or mind after the flesh, and dead, made alive, into the mind after the Spirit, in order to be able to submit to God's law, and to please God, and to no longer be at enmity with God.
Both Arminian and Calvinist agree that this transformation is what is called regeneration and that it is impossible apart from God's work. What they don't agree on is how it does happen, or more specifically, WHEN, in the logical sequence of soteriology. But Romans 8 is plain that nothing spiritual can happen until the dead mind of flesh is made alive.
But you two keep saying that "free willers" believe we can choose God our own. I believe we need to convicted by the Holy Spirit to choose God. It's not something I believe we are able to do on our own. Still I believe free will plays a part in it. We can resist the work of the Spirit and so on.
I agree that the conviction (and several other things) are necessary before one will choose God. The question is not whether we choose God after conviction, but whether regeneration is necessary in order for one to choose God. Romans 8 says that the dead will not choose God.