- May 22, 2015
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When it's arbitrary, sure, it's non-objective. When it's prudent, it is objective.When "relative" is used to arbitrarily subdivide humans then it is non-objective, which is what I was saying in that last post. That is, when "relative" has the effect of exempting some humans from moral precepts, or establishing entirely different standards for different groups of people, then it is not objective.
Eh... I'm not sure if we disagree on this or not. Let's explore it. I like chocolate ice cream. Can we say that the fact "Orel likes chocolate ice cream" is objective? We would agree that it's my subjective opinion that chocolate ice cream is tasty, yes yes? But "Orel likes chocolate ice cream" is true, but it only relates to me.If something is objective then it is true and accessible (or confirmable) for all, not just for some.
Relative and absolute are on a spectrum. The more general the rules, the more absolute it is. The more you have to specify the circumstances, the more relative it is. For instance, "Torture is wrong" is more absolute than "Torture for fun is wrong".Now I agree that those who believe that morality is relative to certain situational variables can at the same time be moral objectivists (or hold to an objective morality). We just wouldn't tend call them moral relativists. As noted earlier, I'm not quite sure who qualifies as a "moral absolutist." From my reading it would seem that a moral absolutist holds to only one single moral principle so that there are no conflicting principles even in theory. If that is right then moral absolutists are few and far between, and it's not clear to me what your relative concept of morality is concretely opposed to?
Yes it is. Trained is one sect, untrained is another sect.In this case "relative" is not subdividing humans into different moral sects.
I could say, "Do not cut off people's heads if you are not an ancient Aztec" and that would apply to all persons, yes yes?This is because the moral rule, "Do not perform CPR if you are untrained," applies to all humans regardless of culture, historical epoch, etc. It is universally applicable and accessible. So it would not be moral relativism in the colloquial sense of the "ism", and yes, you are right that it would be objective.
Side note, since I acknowledged my mistake, I get to ignore your references to "isms" and "ists". We're talking about what it means for things to be relative and objective and subjective.
Well, we're dividing folks based on some criteria. One group should act one way, and the other group should act in the opposite way. You agree that criteria (trained vs untrained) is prudent, but you seem to only want to acknowledge the relative nature of the division if it isn't prudent.But it is worth pointing out that the common understanding of morality is objective and is also "relative" in the sense you are describing. Nearly everyone would agree that the application of moral rules requires prudence, and thus it seems to me that what you describe has no special name because it is characteristic of all (or nearly all) moral systems. I don't understand why such a ubiquitous quality of moral reasoning would need to be highlighted, or what it is intended to be contrasted with.
Thanks to @Kylie for pointing out that even untrained people should begin CPR, which subsequently makes my analogy fail. But I'm sure Zippy saw your post too and we're both sticking to the analogy solely for simplicity's sake. If Zippy wanted to get all pedantic about it we could switch to something else like entering confined spaces to retrieve an unconscious person or something to that effect, but I don't think he's that pedantic.
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