Sorry that is not true. What was posted in Wikipedia was scholarly criticism in regards to the interpretation of the Greek from Didache 14:1 under the section of "
Ambiguous references". "The term "Lord's" appears in The Teaching of the Twelve Apostles or Didache, a document dated between 70 and 120. Didache 14:1a is translated by Roberts as, "But every Lord's day gather yourselves together, and break bread, and give thanksgiving"; another translation begins, "On the Lord's own day". The first clause in Greek, "
κατά κυριακήν δέ κυρίου", literally means "On the Lord's of the Lord", a unique and unexplained double possessive, and translators supply the
elided noun, e.g., "day" (
ἡμέρα hemera), "commandment" (from the immediately prior verse 13:7), or "doctrine".
[16][17] This is one of two early extrabiblical Christian uses of "κυριακήν" where it does not clearly refer to Sunday because textual readings have given rise to questions of proper translation. Breaking bread (daily or weekly) may refer to Christian fellowship, agape feasts, or Eucharist (cf. Acts 2:42, 20:7)."
I'm afraid you are wrong. As I've already explained to you there is no scholarly criticism of the translations of Did 1:14 in that Wikipedia page. The only sentence that claims the translations are wrong contains no supporting citations. It is simply a wikipedia user making an unwarranted assertion. The citations that are provided elsewhere in that section say the translations of Did 1:14 are correct!
That is not true at all. These have all been peer reviewed here on the same subject matter as wiki. These are only a few but there are many more references I have not listed here from the peer reviewed published papers listed below on the same subject matter as posted in wiki above..
1. The Sabbath in Scripture and History by Professor Kenneth Strand
2. The Lord's day of
Revelation 1:10 the current debate by Professor Ranko Stefanovic
3. An Analysis of “the Lord’s day” in the Didache... by Professor Michael Simmons
4. From Sabbath to Sunday ... by Dr Samuele Bacchiocci
Ok, lets have a look at these references.....
1. The Sabbath in Scripture and History by Professor Kenneth Strand
You obviosuly haven't read his piece. Even though he is sda, Strand does not say the Didache translations are inaccurate. Quite the opposite. He supports adding the word 'day'!
2. The Lord's day of
Revelation 1:10 the current debate by Professor Ranko Stefanovic
As you would expect from an sda, he objects to adding the word 'day' in Did 1:14, but the only reason he gives is because the word does not appear in the Greek. Doh! He is obviously unaware of the Greek day naming customs. He certainly makes no mention of 'reference points'.
3. An Analysis of “the Lord’s day” in the Didache... by Professor Michael Simmons
That peice was not written by Professor Michael Simmons. it was an essay written by an unqualified student of his called Greg Howell. It has not been peer-reviewed or published by any respected theological journal or book publisher. But even so, he does not claim the word 'day' is a mistranslation of Did 1:14. If you skip to the conclusion you will see he accepts it. And wisely so considering ALL Koine Greek scholars agree that is the correct translation.
4. From Sabbath to Sunday ... by Dr Samuele Bacchiocci
Bacchiocci is another sda, so of course he has an agenda, otherwise he would lose his job at the SDA university. Like Stefanovic he ignores the Koine Greek custom of omitting the word 'day' from days of the week. Instead he suggests adding a different word
which is also absent in the Greek, the Lord's '
life', with no real justifiable reason for doing so. He then concedes that other uses of the word κυριακή in Koine Greek documents do indeed refer to "the Lord's day" even though these too omit the word day. This smacks of SDA duplicity.
What theory would that be? Is "
the Lords day" written in the original Greek of Didache 14:1? -Nope. If the Lords day is not written in the Greek of Didache 14:1 why are you pretending that it is when the original Greek is "
Lords of Lord" which was changed to "
Lords day" by the translators adding in [day] without any reference point to time or week? This is not theory dear friend it is
fact. "κατά κυριακήν δέ κυρίου", literally means "Lord's of the Lord"
not the Lords day. What other theory would you be referring to? That there is no scripture to support the man-made teaching and tradition that Sunday is "the Lords day" of
Revelation 1:10? I asked you if you disagree please post the scripture showing that "
the Lords day" of
Revelation 1:10 is Sunday or the first day of the week. No one has posted me a single scripture to prove this early church teaching and tradition is biblical in this entire thread. These are of course facts not theory. On the other hand theory is trying to prove that "
the Lords day" is Sunday outside of the scriptures when there is
no scripture that proves this teaching.
I have already given you proof that κυριακή "the Lord's" on it's own means "the Lord's day" as shown by the BDAG lexicon, the most respected in the world, where it lists numerous examples (D 14:1, Kephal. I 194, 9; 195, 6; Did., Gen. 190, 2, GPt 9:35; 12:50. AcPl Ha 3, 9. and IMg 9:1, Jer 52:12). It is common knowledge among Greek scholars that the word 'day' is usually omitted, just as it is in modern Greek today. That is why every Greek translator adds the word 'day', not only in Didache 1:14 but in all the other Koine Greek documents that use the word κυριακή on its own. If they didn't the translations would be jibberish, just like your translation of Did 1:14 which would read "But on the Lord's of the Lord gather yourselves together and break bread...". The context alone shows the author is referring to the day on which they meet together.
Sorry dear friend but I respectfully disagree. They do not prove your point at all. As posted earlier whenever day is inferred or added in by the translators when it is not in the biblical text it is added because there is a reference point to time (e.g first of the week). You were provided scripture examples and the Greek earlier from
John 20:19 see
original Greek context to week here. The Didache 14.1 original Greek
has no reference point to time and no reason to add the word "day" which is not in the original Greek. This is the textual criticism shown earlier that demonstrates a mistranslation of Didache 14.1. Also you may want to consider that in
Revelation 1:10 in the Koine Greek is τῇ κυριακῇ ἡμέρᾳ translated as "
the Lords day" the Greek word for "day" (ἡμέρᾳ) is in the original Greek and is not supplied by the translator.
I'm afraid BDAG disagees with you, as do all the Greek translators of Did 1:14 and every other manuscript containing the word κυριακή.
Dispite me asking several times you haven't provided a single scholarly reference that supports your theory. Show me a single Greek scholar that says the translations of Did 1:14 are wrong because of 'reference points', or even that reference points are needed before the word 'day' can be added by a translator. Admit it, you don't have any do you?
Not really. Strand was only giving an overview of what various scholars thought Didache 14.1 was referring to as they did not believe that Didache 14.1 was a correct translation from "Lords of Lord" to Lords day when the Lords day was not in the original Greek. The context is provided here...
"The Didache, a sort of baptismal, organizational, or instructional manual, has been dated anywhere from the late first century to the late second century, but the statement in chapter 14 of interest here reads as follows: Kata kuriakin de kuriou sunaxtlumles klasale arton kai mxaristisate-''On the Lord's of the Lord or "According to the Lord's of the Lord" assemble, break bread, and bold Eucharist." The word "day" (Greek himeran, in the accusative case) does not actually appear in the text, but most Lranslators have added it in their English translation, making the text read as follows: "On the Lord's day. . . ." Some students of the text would, however, suggest the rendition "According to the Lord's commandment . . ."-also a possible translation of the original Greek. Samuele Bacchiocchi, following a rendition of John Baptiste Thibaut and supponing it with a rather impressive line of evidence, gives a similar translation : ""'According to the sovereign doctrine of the Lord.""'
From there onwards Strand shows that other Scholars have critiqued the translation of Didache 14.1 to "Lords day" from "Lord's of the Lord" to a possible meaning of easter Sunday to the British Scholar C. W Dugmore stating that Dugmore does not accept a Lord's day translation to weekly Christian Sunday in the New testament and subapostolic literature and felt it was strange that if this day was indeed the most important day of its time there would be more mention of it prior to Justin Martyr at the middle of the second century. Strand goes on to look at how other scholars have critiqued the translation of Didache 14:1 and looked at applying different meaning other than "the Lords day" which is not in the original Greek (e.g. Lawrence T. Geraty).
You haven't read Strands piece properly. He goes on to tell us which translation of Did 1:14 he prefers.....
"Lawrence T . Geraty has followed up on this possible meaning for the Didache statement, commenting as follows: “Undoubtedly one of the earliest [hints that the Pascha was celebrated as an annual Lord’s day festival] is the phrase ‘Lord's Day' in the Didache, an ancient baptismal or organizational manual. Although this rendition from Κατὰ κυριακὴν δὲ κυρίου συναχθέντες has been disputed, it is nevertheless the preferred translation"
As I previously pointed out to you, there is not a single scholarly citation in that Wikipedia page that says Did 1:14 has been mistranslated.
I see so in your view any published peer reviewed paper put out by a Professor or Doctor (pHd) from an SDA University cannot be true because they are SDA? So what if Ranko Stefanovic does not appear in wiki's references? You asked for peer reviewed published papers by Professors critiquing the Greek translation of Didache 14.1. I posted some extras for you. It seems you may not be aware of the day naming system in the Hebrew and Jewish culture and biblical texts of the bible. As posted earlier if "day" is not in the original Greek text the reference point used by the translators in adding the English word day needs to be some reference point to time. There is no reference point in the Greek text of Didache 14:1. That is why some scholars have critiqued it as a mistranslation not based on evidence because there is no reference point to time and "Lords day" is not in the original Greek (e.g.
John 20:19 see
Greek context to week here). Now note;
Revelation 1:10 in the Koine Greek is τῇ κυριακῇ ἡμέρᾳ translated as "
the Lords day" with ἡμέρᾳ (day) not being a supplied word of the translators but the original Greek text that is not supplied. That is why other scholars have critiqued the Greek translation of Didache 14.1 as Strand and other scholars have noted there is no reference point to time to add in the word [day] there needs to be a reference to time (e.g first day of the week)
No, what I said is that as a card carrying SDA he is hardly
expected to say a word against SDA dogma. Plus he would undoubtedly lose his job at Andrews University if he said anything different. And as it was published by Andrews University Press, his peers who reviewed this paper before publication were no doubt fellow SDA's. I doubt if this is work would have passed the scrutiny of review boards at respected independent theological journals or academic publishers such as Tyndale or Baker Academic.
But I critiqued his piece only it's content.
