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Defining "Works"

2PhiloVoid

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How about logic, how about that? How about rational? Common sense? I need not cite to some person or authority when it’s logical, rational, common sense. Does it make sense to ignore plain text meaning? Does it? Is it logical?

“And Jesus wept.” Hold up, let’s not adhere to the plain text meaning that Jesus cried. Let’s abandon the plain text meaning a watery liquid was excreted from his eyes. Yeah, let’s look for alternate meaning other than the plain text. That doesn’t make any sense.

The above is a realistic implication of your idea the plain text meaning can be swept aside or cannot be deduced until we’ve consulted with some authority.

“The cow jumped over the moon.” Not literally a cow, it was a house was tossed over cheddar cheese, despite the plain text meaning saying otherwise.

Logically, words are used to express and convey a message, a point. Words have a limited range of meaning. Words placed into writing are logically done to express a point or message by the writer/author. Adhering to the plain text meaning is done to preclude alternate meanings which do not fit within the words used, thereby better ensuring no deviation from the point/message the author is expressing by the words they chose to express it. After all, the author chose the words with a specific point and messge in mind.

And this is how humans have collectively made sense of the world in writing. There are writings everywhere. Advertisements, job postings, letters, history books, famous writings, etcetera. People do not look for alternate meanings when the plain text meaning is evident.

“Band practice begins at 10:00am.” The plain text meaning shouldn’t be followed because? Do you have a rational answer?

When Plato wrote the “Apology” and “Crito,” based on plain text meaning, I can logically know Plato is discussing a trial involving Socrates. I can say Plato isn’t discussing the trial of Zeus or the three Kryptonian criminals from Superman. But your reasoning, and bizarre insistence, I cite to some authority before I can confidently take a plain text meaning from those works of Plato is irrational.

A sign which reads, “Closed. Reopens at 8:00am,” on a business, by your reasoning, cannot confidently mean what it’s plain text meaning says until one can dial a expert to back up their logical plain text meaning of the sign.

Logic is sufficient. Rationality is sufficient. It is not logical or rational to go through this life with the default view of not adhering to a plain text meaning. If you believe otherwise, it is your burden to show how it is logical and rational to not adhere to plain text meaning.

I provided other examples. I gave you the Due Process Clause example and parking the car in the bay. It is your burden to show why the plain text meaning should be ignored in those examples, because your logic leads to the implication it should in my examples.



This is a strawman. I’ve never said “all cases” and I have been direct and explicit in stating plain text meaning isn’t for “all cases.” I specifically highlighted some instances where plain text meaning shouldn’t be followed.



A few points.

First, you’ve confused plain text meaning with literal reading. The two aren’t the same. A plain text meaning is a serpent talked to Eve. Not a cow, not a crow, but a snake spoke to Eve. The snake did not speak to Adam, or a bird, or another snake.

Now, there’s the question of whether the snake talking to Eve is to be understood as literal, i.e. the author is presenting to the reader an actual account, a factual account, or is the language figurative and metaphorical.

Second, both Licona and Craig adhere to the plain text meaning.

Third, absent ambiguity, evidence of idioms, evidence of different but specific meaning of a word/words than the common meaning, absent evidence of a esoteric, arcane meaning, then the plain meaning controls. Both Craig, Licona, and others follow this principle. But as I said before, the name dropping you demand is irrelevant.



That is evidence addressing an argument I never made. I never asserted “in all cases.” Never. Try addressing my argument, the argument I made, factually made.
And......all of this pretty much doesn't address much of anything I've said. I never said, "Don't value a plain-text meaning." No, my overall argument has been that meaning found in any text whatsoever is governed by multiple levels of contexts. There will be various levels of consideration to be made, then, for any text, especially those in the Bible; and the less personal displacement we have in place, time, language, culture and affiliation from the interlaced contexts that are involved in the text being engaged, the less need we will have of making additional evaluations so as help assure that we've correctly understood the intended meaning of that same text.

Can we agree on this?
 
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NotreDame

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Since "force" shows up as a synonym for "influence" & influence carries the connotation of power, I think we're going to run into some limitations on words here.

By type of force I meant the God and Creator of the Universe warning us of judgments & penalties we will incur for being outside of His will. I think we're both going to the same thing re: this: We have free-will to decide whether or not to heed the warnings.

On another note, when a Child of God is disciplined by our Father, this discipline is a type of force. It can certainly be an awful powerful influence, like a rod to the child in Proverbs.

Does this answer you?

Yes sir! I do agree it can be a powerful influence for some. Interestingly enough, William Lane Craig once argued it was possible that the only way to have an eternity where the created didn’t rebel, he’s thinking post Revelation, was to have an eternity of hell as punishment.
 
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Gregory Thompson

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Lots of discussion lately about "works".
When compared with discussions about "grace" and "faith", we are pretty quick to define the terms.
But, what about "works"? It seems to go undefined, and appears to mean different things to different Christians. What's your definition?

Additionally, I would like to discuss a few aspects that I find interesting about works.
1) The good works, which God prepared in advance for us to do. (Ephesians 2:10)
2) The "do nothing" works of Jesus. (John 5:19) Imitating the Father.
3) Wood, hay and stubble works. (1 Corinthians 3:12-14)
4) No work "works". (Romans 4:4-5) Trusting God, not self.

Ephesians 2:10 NIV
For we are God’s handiwork, created in Christ Jesus to do good works, which God prepared in advance for us to do.

John 5:19 NIV
Jesus gave them this answer: “Very truly I tell you, the Son can do nothing by himself; he can do only what he sees his Father doing, because whatever the Father does the Son also does.

1 Corinthians 3:12-14 NIV
If anyone builds on this foundation using gold, silver, costly stones, wood, hay or straw, 13 their work will be shown for what it is, because the Day will bring it to light. It will be revealed with fire, and the fire will test the quality of each person’s work. 14 If what has been built survives, the builder will receive a reward.

Romans 4:4-5 NIV
Now to the one who works, wages are not credited as a gift but as an obligation. 5 However, to the one who does not work but trusts God who justifies the ungodly, their faith is credited as righteousness.
I try not to think about it too much, or I might have 613 rules that cause me to miss the point.

However, Jesus did say one thing about work that seemed profound, it is your work to have faith.

In terms of refinement and fruit I tend to use 1st John's love discourse, love is matured or made perfect in us so we have confidence on the day of judgment. - The point being to become like Him.
 
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NotreDame

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By contrast, I'll show you how little logic I personally know and my overly abundant need to reference and learn from many sources, all of which I have to draw from in order to gain even a smidgen of understanding about various forms of logic that exist out there in the world (since there is more than one) and about various modes of exegesis/interpretation (even of the bible---since there's also more than one) which are used and applied to the bible in multitudes of different Christian churches. Here's just a few of the sources I feel I NEED in order to responsibly read and understand the Bible:

Introducing Logic and Critical Thinking - by T. Ryan Byerly
The Power of Logic - C. Stephen Layman
A Handbook of New Testament Exegesis - Craig L. Blomberg
Out of Context: How to Avoid Misinterpreting the Bible - Richard L. Schulz
The Most Misused Verses in the Bible - Eric J. Bargerhuff
Reading the Bible with Rabbi Jesus - Lois Tverberg

...and 100's of others.​

So what? I’m not impressed with a reference sheet. The reference sheet doesn’t tell me a plain text meaning is illogical. A reference sheet doesn’t tell me you are right. A reference sheet does not tell me I’m wrong.

And, having a background in philosophy, Christian philosophy, history, and law, I’m intimately familiar with the use of experts and scholars. But it isn’t the fact they have a label which makes them right, logical, but the strength of their reasoning and the evidence underlying and supporting their arguments and conclusions.

You have refused to address the substance of my examples, evidence, and reasoning. You interject instead with a demand for references.

I mean, am I supposed to just take your word on how to best interpret the Bible simply because...... "NotreDame says so"?

For goodness sakes man, my position isn’t because I said so! My argument makes use of examples and reasoning. You’ve not assailed the evidence, examples, or reasoning of my argument. You have persistently avoided addressing the reasoning of my argument, evidence, and examples.

It is absolutely crazy to think, by your logic, an “outside source” has to be invoked to take the plain text meaning of “And Jesus wept.” That’s the absurdity of your argument. The absurdity of your view is the plain text meaning of “And Jesus wept” cannot be accepted and why, because according to you some “outside source” has to first say we can and it’s logical to do so.

Tell me, are you not taking a plain text meaning of “And Jesus wept”?

Tell me, what “outside source” did you consult before taking the plain text meaning of my posts that allowed you to respond? Do you think I was discussing unicorns? Ponies? Fairies? No, you rightly took the plain text meaning of my posts and I’m confident you didn’t consult an “outside source” to do it. And it is the plain text meaning which has made the back and forth dialogue transpire.

I gave you a reasoned argument why plain text was rational, logical. Hence, my argument is not a “I said so,” that’s a cop out from having to address the substantive reasoning. With your philosophy background you should have no problem A) Identfiying the logic of my argument B.) the hidden assumptions, C) necessary inferences, and articulate a rebuttal critiquing the reasoning of the argument rather than copping out in addressing the resining with the asinine “said so” meme.



Oh by golly, I most definitely think you DO!!! Otherwise, it's just YOU making a claim to logic that isn't always so or isn't always evident to everyone else. I mean, am I supposed to just take your word on how to best interpret the Bible simply because...... "NotreDame says so"?

You see, if we're going to even broach the topic of "logicality" and "biblical exegesis" then yes, I'm going to admit up front that I'm definitely going to have to refer to and defer to sources outside of myself by which to do this since, (logically speaking), its obvious to me that the finer aspects of language and linguistics, logic, hermeneutics and exegesis aren't typically self-evident to anyone, which is why we have to school our children afterall --- since they don't learn even their ABC's by merely standing out in the sunshine.

Because the “sources outside of myself” make it logical? No, they rationally do not. Whether something is logical is not contingent upon “outside sources.” By doing this, you’ve invoked the genetic fallacy. I do not need to adhere to your illogical reasoning. If you want to insist an “outside source” makes something logical, then knock yourself out with that genetic fallacy reasoning. I’m not playing along.

I am not bound to follow the bad logic of “some outside source” tells us when it is logical and permissible to take a plain text meaning. You will waltz with that genetic fallacy alone.

If there's anything that is self-evident, it's the fact that reading the Bible and understanding it is not an exercise in self-evident realizations.

Who ever said it was? Your problem is reading the verse “And Jesus wept” by its plain text meaning of Jesus cried, water excreted from his eyes, isn’t an “exercise in self-evident realization.” It is a logical exercise based on the reasoning I stated in the prior post which you have chosen to ignore so far.

The plain text meaning of verses where Jesus walked on water, which is Jesus was standing on top of water and walking on top of it as one would on ground, isn’t an “an exercise in self-evident realizations.” By your logic, this plain text meaning cannot be relied upon until some “outside source” informs us it is logical to do so.

without citation to any of the books and/or references that have actually informed you in your intellectual development over the years.


That’s right. I have many books arguing and explaining why plain text meaning is a logical and rational reading, all else being equal. Why have I not cited to them? The explanation is all those great books I’ve read, continue to read, have taught me the source doesn’t make something logical or right. So what Justice Scalia defended a plain text meaning/textualism in his book,”A Matter of Interpretation: Federal Courts and the Law.” Citing to his work for a plain text meaning of the law does nothing to say taking a plain text meaning is logical. William Lane Craig’s proclivity for plain text meaning, and his use of it, doesn’t mean plain text meaning is logical.

By your logic, it is a wonder how any of us make sense of the world and what we read without consulting an “outside source.” Your logic is a nightmare for the real world. In classrooms, colleges, courtrooms, mail, you name it, we are stymied as to the meaning of some writing until we can consult an “outside source” to tell us the plain text meaning of whatever we are reading in class, college, in courtroom, in our mail, is logical to do so.
 
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Saint Steven

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You or myself cannot make up other people's minds. Each person must make up their own mind then be held accountable to that.
Are you claiming that everyone has had a chance to "make up their mind"? (as you say)

Seems to me that countless billions have gone into the afterlife with no knowledge of Christ whatsoever. All destined for eternal incineration according to you? God's plan for humankind.
 
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Saint Steven

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In an earlier post from John 3:36 it says God's wrath abides upon the disobedient/unbelievers therefore the souls of the disobedient last as long as God and His wrath lasts. Matthew 5 deals with how humans are to treat humans and has nothing to do with God's judgment of men in separating the obedient from the disobedient.
Hang on there now. Let's take a look.
Jesus teaches us to love you enemies. (verse 44) Because it is perfect godly behavior. (verse 48)

Matthew 5:43-48
“You have heard that it was said, ‘Love your neighbor and hate your enemy.’ 44 But I tell you, love your enemies and pray for those who persecute you, 45 that you may be children of your Father in heaven. He causes his sun to rise on the evil and the good, and sends rain on the righteous and the unrighteous. 46 If you love those who love you, what reward will you get? Are not even the tax collectors doing that? 47 And if you greet only your own people, what are you doing more than others? Do not even pagans do that? 48 Be perfect, therefore, as your heavenly Father is perfect.
 
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2PhiloVoid

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So what? I’m not impressed with a reference sheet. The reference sheet doesn’t tell me a plain text meaning is illogical. A reference sheet doesn’t tell me you are right. A reference sheet does not tell me I’m wrong.

And, having a background in philosophy, Christian philosophy, history, and law, I’m intimately familiar with the use of experts and scholars. But it isn’t the fact they have a label which makes them right, logical, but the strength of their reasoning and the evidence underlying and supporting their arguments and conclusions.

You have refused to address the substance of my examples, evidence, and reasoning. You interject instead with a demand for references.



For goodness sakes man, my position isn’t because I said so! My argument makes use of examples and reasoning. You’ve not assailed the evidence, examples, or reasoning of my argument. You have persistently avoided addressing the reasoning of my argument, evidence, and examples.

It is absolutely crazy to think, by your logic, an “outside source” has to be invoked to take the plain text meaning of “And Jesus wept.” That’s the absurdity of your argument. The absurdity of your view is the plain text meaning of “And Jesus wept” cannot be accepted and why, because according to you some “outside source” has to first say we can and it’s logical to do so.

Tell me, are you not taking a plain text meaning of “And Jesus wept”?

Tell me, what “outside source” did you consult before taking the plain text meaning of my posts that allowed you to respond? Do you think I was discussing unicorns? Ponies? Fairies? No, you rightly took the plain text meaning of my posts and I’m confident you didn’t consult an “outside source” to do it. And it is the plain text meaning which has made the back and forth dialogue transpire.

I gave you a reasoned argument why plain text was rational, logical. Hence, my argument is not a “I said so,” that’s a cop out from having to address the substantive reasoning. With your philosophy background you should have no problem A) Identfiying the logic of my argument B.) the hidden assumptions, C) necessary inferences, and articulate a rebuttal critiquing the reasoning of the argument rather than copping out in addressing the resining with the asinine “said so” meme.





Because the “sources outside of myself” make it logical? No, they rationally do not. Whether something is logical is not contingent upon “outside sources.” By doing this, you’ve invoked the genetic fallacy. I do not need to adhere to your illogical reasoning. If you want to insist an “outside source” makes something logical, then knock yourself out with that genetic fallacy reasoning. I’m not playing along.

I am not bound to follow the bad logic of “some outside source” tells us when it is logical and permissible to take a plain text meaning. You will waltz with that genetic fallacy alone.



Who ever said it was? Your problem is reading the verse “And Jesus wept” by its plain text meaning of Jesus cried, water excreted from his eyes, isn’t an “exercise in self-evident realization.” It is a logical exercise based on the reasoning I stated in the prior post which you have chosen to ignore so far.

The plain text meaning of verses where Jesus walked on water, which is Jesus was standing on top of water and walking on top of it as one would on ground, isn’t an “an exercise in self-evident realizations.” By your logic, this plain text meaning cannot be relied upon until some “outside source” informs us it is logical to do so.




That’s right. I have many books arguing and explaining why plain text meaning is a logical and rational reading, all else being equal. Why have I not cited to them? The explanation is all those great books I’ve read, continue to read, have taught me the source doesn’t make something logical or right. So what Justice Scalia defended a plain text meaning/textualism in his book,”A Matter of Interpretation: Federal Courts and the Law.” Citing to his work for a plain text meaning of the law does nothing to say taking a plain text meaning is logical. William Lane Craig’s proclivity for plain text meaning, and his use of it, doesn’t mean plain text meaning is logical.

By your logic, it is a wonder how any of us make sense of the world and what we read without consulting an “outside source.” Your logic is a nightmare for the real world. In classrooms, colleges, courtrooms, mail, you name it, we are stymied as to the meaning of some writing until we can consult an “outside source” to tell us the plain text meaning of whatever we are reading in class, college, in courtroom, in our mail, is logical to do so.

So, in relation to all that can be traced back in our chain of dialogue, going all the way back up to post #33 where you first engaged me in this thread, what would you like for me to have learned from your lesson(s) here, brother NotreDame?
 
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GDL

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I often hear people who teach salvation by faith AND WORKS try to "get around" such passages as Romans 4:5-6 by teaching that whenever Paul says we are not saved by works, he merely limits that to specific "works of the law" but does not include works of faith/good works/works in general etc.. However, that is a bogus argument.

I think some are too quick to allege that another is teaching works salvation. Setting that aside for now, your conclusion seems to be that Paul in the beginning of Rom4 has concluded his "works of law" thoughts from Rom3 and is now speaking of works in general. At the moment I agree with you and posted as such earlier.

In James 2:15-16, the example of a "work" that James gives is: "If a brother or sister is naked and destitute of daily food, and one of you says to them, "Depart in peace, be warmed and filled," but you do not give them the things which are needed for the body, what does it profit?" To give a brother or sister these things needed for the body would certainly be a "good work/work of faith" yet to neglect such a brother or sister and not give them the things needed for the body is to break the second great commandment "love your neighbor as yourself" (Matthew 22:39) as found written in the law of Moses. (Leviticus 19:18)

In Matthew 22:37-40, we read: Jesus said to him, 'You shall love the Lord your God with all your heart, with all your soul, and with all your mind.' This is the first and great commandment. And the second is like it: 'You shall love your neighbor as yourself.' On these two commandments hang all the Law and the Prophets. There are no good works that a Christian could perform which are "completely detached" from these two great commandments which are found in the law of Moses. (Deuteronomy 6:5; Leviticus 19:18) We cannot dissect good works/works of faith from the moral aspect of the law and then teach that we are saved by "these" works (good works/works of faith) but just not "those" works (works of the law).

I tend to agree with you here also. It has been my thinking for some time that virtually everything we do is covered within God's commandments. I've seen the 613 OT commands referenced here a few times, but 613 was simply from a study from Maimonides as I recall. Maybe 613 is correct, maybe not. There are also 1,000 +/- commands in the NT.

As I also recall, you & I divided over this works discussion in another thread. IMO works is not the whole discussion we all should be having until we all agree what the full scope of Salvation is. Then we might better identify what point re: Salvation is being discussed in regards to works.

In Titus 3:5, Paul clearly states that it is not by works of righteousness which we have done, (works which are done in righteousness) but according to His mercy He saved us..

What precisely do you mean in your interpretation of "works of righteousness" as "works which are done in righteousness"? Specifically, I think my question relates to "in righteousness." BTW, I'm glad someone is interpreting these "of" phrases, because there are many ways to interpret & translate them.

In 2 Timothy 1:9, Paul clearly states that God saved us and called us with a holy calling, not according to our works.. So Paul does not limit "not saved by works" merely to specific works of the law, but includes works in general.

Also, assuming I understand you correctly, I tend to agree with you here. The "works of law" discussions would be a specific category of "works" for a specific purpose. However, as I think you've pointed out, when "works" in general are discussed, it can & likely does include the subcategories such as "works of law" and all others subcategories as well.
 
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Butterball1

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Hang on there now. Let's take a look.
Jesus teaches us to love you enemies. (verse 44) Because it is perfect godly behavior. (verse 48)

Matthew 5:43-48
“You have heard that it was said, ‘Love your neighbor and hate your enemy.’ 44 But I tell you, love your enemies and pray for those who persecute you, 45 that you may be children of your Father in heaven. He causes his sun to rise on the evil and the good, and sends rain on the righteous and the unrighteous. 46 If you love those who love you, what reward will you get? Are not even the tax collectors doing that? 47 And if you greet only your own people, what are you doing more than others? Do not even pagans do that? 48 Be perfect, therefore, as your heavenly Father is perfect.
That passage has nothing to do with God's judging men. Men have created man-made laws and courts of laws, so a Judge condemning a man to life in prison or a death penalty is not what Christ is talking about.
 
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Butterball1

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Are you claiming that everyone has had a chance to "make up their mind"? (as you say)

Seems to me that countless billions have gone into the afterlife with no knowledge of Christ whatsoever. All destined for eternal incineration according to you? God's plan for humankind.
Are you saying God OWED them salvation? God OWED it to them that they hear the gospel?

Why does God OWE man for the sad, lost state man put himself in?
 
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GDL

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Thanks!

I too would go to John 6:27-29 and more of the chapter to have this discussion. Not so sure I'd use the Luke verse, but I think I see your point that it has similarities to John 6:45 and the Lord's command in 6:27 to work for (hear & learn) the food/information He gives.

One of the questions in John 6:29 is how to interpret "the work of God."
 
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Gregory Thompson

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Thanks!

I too would go to John 6:27-29 and more of the chapter to have this discussion. Not so sure I'd use the Luke verse, but I think I see your point that it has similarities to John 6:45 and the Lord's command in 6:27 to work for (hear & learn) the food/information He gives.
I thought how Martha was very "work" oriented, but Mary by contrast was very faith oriented, this illustrates that the "work" in the eyes of people is not always "work" in the eyes of God.
 
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Saint Steven

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That passage has nothing to do with God's judging men. Men have created man-made laws and courts of laws, so a Judge condemning a man to life in prison or a death penalty is not what Christ is talking about.
But no human would treat another as cruelly as what Damnationism claims God will do? On earth we fit the punishment to the crime and have laws against cruel and unusual punishment. Eternal incineration is far and beyond any cruelty ever seen on earth. Thus making God out to be a cosmic tyrant of horrible proportion. God is love? Not according to Damnationism.
 
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Saint Steven

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Are you saying God OWED them salvation? God OWED it to them that they hear the gospel?

Why does God OWE man for the sad, lost state man put himself in?
That is a part of the Damnationist defense. Blame the victims. Good work.

Saint Steven said:
Are you claiming that everyone has had a chance to "make up their mind"? (as you say)

Seems to me that countless billions have gone into the afterlife with no knowledge of Christ whatsoever. All destined for eternal incineration according to you? God's plan for humankind.
 
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Butterball1

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That is a part of the Damnationist defense. Blame the victims. Good work.

Saint Steven said:
Are you claiming that everyone has had a chance to "make up their mind"? (as you say)

Seems to me that countless billions have gone into the afterlife with no knowledge of Christ whatsoever. All destined for eternal incineration according to you? God's plan for humankind.
Man is not a victim but the cause, the very perpetrator of his problems with sin. Can't blame God for thr wrong choices man made for himself. Therefore God owes man nothing.
 
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Butterball1

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But no human would treat another as cruelly as what Damnationism claims God will do? On earth we fit the punishment to the crime and have laws against cruel and unusual punishment. Eternal incineration is far and beyond any cruelty ever seen on earth. Thus making God out to be a cosmic tyrant of horrible proportion. God is love? Not according to Damnationism.

You're judging God by your faulty logic. Universalists have no problem with there being an eternal life. Man lives a very limited life span ("life is but a vapour") in serving God yet that righteous man is given something eternal in exchange for a life that was lived in a very limited time. Man does not deserve such a thing as heaven at all. Yet Universalists have problems with eternal punishment...no consistency...if man does not deserve eternal punishment neither does he deserve eternal life.

God is love, He has no joy in men being lost Ezekiel 18:32, but desires all men to repent and be saved, 2 Peter 3:9. God provided man a pathway to keep from being lost though He did not have to, did not owe it to man. Those that end up lost therefore have no one to blame but themselves and thier own sins.

The justice God metes out to the unrighteous will be equal to their guilt, Hebrews 10:29 "sorer punishment".

Your whole argument is based upon the ideal that a just, loving God is antagonistic to the idea of eternal punishment. But you are judging God, Christians based upon your OPINION of what YOU claim 'just' and 'loving' means. It could be said that you are a 'theological dictionary' unto yourself. But since God will send men to eternal punishment, then it is not contrary to His nature.

Above, you admitted "On earth we fit the punishment to the crime" so you agree that wrongdoers do deserve some kind of punishment and punishment is not unjust. Therefore punishment is not antagonistic to justice. The issue is about length of punishment. It takes a person 1 second to pull a trigger and murder another man yet that one second can translate to rest of life (decades) in prison. The Judge will not put the murderer in jail for one second whereby the punishment fits the time it took to commit the crime. Men live a lifetime in rebellion to God, hence eternal punishment is not out of line since true, real justice can demand punishment that far excedes the time it took to commit the crime.

So the issue cannot be punishment of wrongdoers, you agree with that. The issue cannot be duration of punishment for you agree with punishment that excedes duration of time it took to commit the crime is just. The issue is you just PERSONALLY do not like the idea of eternal punishment. You are trying to tell God how long justice should be. If you were tried and found guilty of murder, will you be telling the Judge how long a punishment you deserve? No. The wrongdoer is not allowed to set his own punishment....in this life or the next.
 
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Saint Steven

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Man is not a victim but the cause, the very perpetrator of his problems with sin. Can't blame God for thr wrong choices man made for himself. Therefore God owes man nothing.
Thanks for proving my point again.

Saint Steven said:
That is a part of the Damnationist defense. Blame the victims. Good work.

Saint Steven said:
Are you claiming that everyone has had a chance to "make up their mind"? (as you say)

Seems to me that countless billions have gone into the afterlife with no knowledge of Christ whatsoever. All destined for eternal incineration according to you? God's plan for humankind.
 
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Saint Steven

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You're judging God by your faulty logic.
No, I'm judging Damnationists by their faulty doctrine.

Saint Steven said:
But no human would treat another as cruelly as what Damnationism claims God will do? On earth we fit the punishment to the crime and have laws against cruel and unusual punishment. Eternal incineration is far and beyond any cruelty ever seen on earth. Thus making God out to be a cosmic tyrant of horrible proportion. God is love? Not according to Damnationism.
 
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