Why would the owner of the fields pay some workers according to contract for working all day, then pay those who worked only an hour the same total amount? Because he is generous to SOME. (Matthew 20). Why would God say "Make the heart of this people calloused; make their ears dull and close their eyes. Otherwise they might see with their eyes, hear with their ears, understand with their hearts, and turn and be healed."(Isaiah 6:10) Doesn't that sound like "withholding"?
Once again, you're only looking at half the picture. Why do you think it is all arbitrary when scripture teaches that God wants all people to repent and to be saved and sacrificed Himself for the sins of the whole world and gets angry and punishes people when they refuse to repent? You draw conclusions from isolated verses without taking all of scripture into account. Why?
Does God close people's eyes arbitrarily or for a reason? What does this say:
Matt 13:14 In them is fulfilled the prophecy of Isaiah: “‘You will be ever hearing but never understanding; you will be ever seeing but never perceiving. 15 For this people’s heart has become calloused; they hardly hear with their ears, and
they have closed their eyes. Otherwise they might see with their eyes, hear with their ears, understand with their hearts and turn, and I would heal them.’
We have several examples of scripture where God decides to no longer contend with certain people when they have repeatedly refused to repent. Look at what this says. They closed their own spiritual eyes! Otherwise, if they hadn't done that, "they might see with their eyes...and turn" and God "would heal them".
What does the following say?
Romans 1:20 For since the creation of the world God’s invisible qualities—
his eternal power and divine nature—have been clearly seen, being understood from what has been made, so that people are without excuse. 21 For
although they knew God, they neither glorified him as God nor gave thanks to him,
but their thinking became futile and their foolish hearts were darkened. 22
Although they claimed to be wise, they became fools 23 and exchanged the glory of the immortal God for images made to look like a mortal human being and birds and animals and reptiles. 24
Therefore God gave them over in the sinful desires of their hearts to sexual impurity for the degrading of their bodies with one another. 25
They exchanged the truth about God for a lie, and worshiped and served created things rather than the Creator—who is forever praised. Amen. 26
Because of this, God gave them over to shameful lusts. Even their women exchanged natural sexual relations for unnatural ones.
Once again, God did not arbitrarily give these people over sinful desires. They knew God, His eternal power and divine nature, but they did not glorify Him as God and were not thankful. That was their choice. It had to be their choice or else Paul wouldn't say they had no excuse for their behavior and their unbelief. If they couldn't help but do what they did, then they would have an excuse. Do you understand that? As a result of that rebellion, God gave them over to their wickedness rather than contending with them any longer. God is very patient but He will only take so much.
Here is another example of what I'm talking about:
2 Thess 2:9 The coming of the lawless one will be in accordance with how Satan works. He will use all sorts of displays of power through signs and wonders that serve the lie, 10 and all the ways that wickedness deceives those who are perishing.
They perish because they refused to love the truth and so be saved. 11 For this reason God sends them a powerful delusion so that they will believe the lie 12 and so that all will be condemned who have not believed the truth but have delighted in wickedness.
Notice what comes first here. The refusal "to love the truth and so be save". It is because of that "God sends them a powerful delusion". God does not blind people, give them over to their wickedness or send them delusion unless they first repeatedly, stubbornly refuse to accept His offer of salvation. I have to say again, you always only see half of the big picture. Dig deeper!
In keeping with your tone, I say, read it again. 1 Timothy 2 says "...there is ONE God and ONE Mediator between God and man.." I.e. THERE IS NO OTHER. All people are to be preached to, and all are required to repent. And yes, even those whose will is corrupt and are unable to repent. If they do not repent, they are already condemned.
No, I do not accept your take on 1 Timothy 2:3. I do believe what it says, but it does not say what you take it to mean. Are you willing to admit that God can do as he says and not how you take it to mean? Are you willing to admit that God can command absolutely everyone to repent, yet not provide them means out of their self-willed predicament? Are not the vessels created for destruction, his to do with as he pleases? (Romans 9)
No, I don't accept your interpretation of those clear passages at all. You're trying to turn something clearly written "God wants all people to be saved" and making it into a convoluted mess.
Here is yet another example of you not digging deep enough to find the truth. You referenced Romans 9.
Romans 9:14 What then shall we say? Is God unjust? Not at all! 15 For he says to Moses, “
I will have mercy on whom I have mercy, and I will have compassion on whom I have compassion.” 16 It does not, therefore, depend on human desire or effort, but on God’s mercy.
I accept what this says wholeheartedly. It's completely up to God who He will have mercy on. Amen. So, does scripture say anything about who He has mercy on or is it arbitrary? It tells us.
Romans 11:30 Just as you who were at one time disobedient to God have now received mercy as a result of their disobedience, 31 so they too have now become disobedient in order that they too may now receive mercy as a result of God’s mercy to you. 32
For God has bound everyone over to disobedience so that he may have mercy on them all.
All of us are sinners (Rom 3:23). God does not keep that from happening, obviously. Why? Because He wants to have mercy on all people. That is what a God of love does. If God is love (1 John 4:8) then why would He only want to have mercy on some people and only want some people to be saved and only cause some people to repent and believe? That makes no sense.
Will you acknowledge that God should gain no pleasure from the death of the wicked, yet relegate them to destruction?
I do not acknowledge that He would relegate them to destruction for no reason. The reason He relegates them to destruction is because of their willful choice to rebel against Him. If they only do what God created them to do then why would God be bothered by their deaths and why does it say He'd rather that they turn from their wickedness?
He does this for his own purposes --and his own glory (Romans 9 again --Read it!).
I read Romans 9! Did you read Romans 11? Stop drawing conclusions from isolated passages without taking all of scripture into account. God wants to have mercy on all people. It's not arbitrary.
Of course he gains no pleasure from destruction! That proves nothing about to whom he gives his particular mercy.
Tell me why you think He doesn't gain pleasure from it? Isn't it what He wants in your view?
"Chance of being saved"? Why do you say "chance"? Do you mean, "ability"? Chance is a fiction. You would leave God's choice of members comprising the PERFECT Bride of Christ to "CHANCE"? Don't you ever even think of these things? Chance is a logical fiction. Nothing can happen by chance. God directs all things, if no other way, logically by the fact that he is First Cause.
Have you never read Matthew 22:1-14? It's all about the gospel first being preached to the Jews and salvation being offered to them and then it gets offered to the Gentiles. How does your understanding of salvation line up with a parable regarding an
invitation to a wedding banquet? The reason that some of the guests don't attend isn't because God didn't want them to, but rather because "they refused to come" (Matt 22:3).
By the way, Ezekiel 18:23 is not written about the elect, the Church, but of the nation of Israel. He is referring to physical death, punishment for disobedience to the law. But even if the principle transfers to the ultimately lost, that he wishes it did not have to be so, remember he also did not delight in having to die, yet the purposes of God were more important than his suffering. The purposes of God are even more important than the lives of the lost.
You're not making any sense here. He clearly said He has no pleasure in their death. Why not? If that was His plan for them rather than saving them then why does it say He wanted them to turn from their ways and live instead?
"Why would God need to be patient while waiting for the elect to repent if their repentance is entirely up to Him?" Their lack of repentence is not entirely up to him --they WILL NOT to repent; but their ABILITY to repent, their escape from slavery to self-willed sin --that is up to him. TAKE NOTE and don't forget it on your next condescending answer: THEY WILL TO REBEL AGAINST HIM. By no means do I deny THEY DO CHOOSE to do wrong. BUT, if God has chosen them (the Elect), he will sooner or later give them the Spirit of God, transforming them from slavery to sin to slavery to Christ, enabling them to repent --so yes, it is up to them at that point, and they indeed will repent --all in good time.
You're all over the map here. Can't you just acknowledge that their repentance is entirely up to God? Do you believe it has anything to do with their own free will to choose to repent or not? No, you don't. It's entirely up to God in your view. Therefore, the idea that God uses patience to wait for people to repent makes no sense if your view that repentance is entirely up to God's will was true.[/quote][/quote]