But you're saying that wasn't even an expectation for Egypt and Babylon - so why would God punish them for something they weren't expected to do? Is that just?Why? Not being faithful to the Sinai covenant and it's law.
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But you're saying that wasn't even an expectation for Egypt and Babylon - so why would God punish them for something they weren't expected to do? Is that just?Why? Not being faithful to the Sinai covenant and it's law.
Honestly? Did you even really read my post?But you're saying that wasn't even an expectation for Egypt and Babylon - so why would God punish them for something they weren't expected to do? Is that just?
Yes, apart from the law.
Yes, law was there. I believe I have also spoken of that tooOf Sinai yes, but there was "law" prior.
Yes, law was there. I believe I have also spoken of that too
Gen 26:5 Because that Abraham obeyed my voice, and kept my charge, my commandments, my statutes, and my laws.
Ro 3:27 Where is boasting then? It is excluded. By what law? of works? Nay: but by the law of faith.
Hebrews 11 has many listed that walked by the law of faith. Abel, Enoch, Noah Abraham etc.
Huh?Because that Abraham obeyed my voice, and kept my charge, my commandments, my statutes, and my laws. That is very specific. They are plural, not singular. The words in Hebrew are the same in Genesis 26:5 and Exodus 16:28.
Huh?
Ge 26:5 Because that Abraham obeyed my voice, and kept my charge, my commandments, my statutes, and my laws.
Ex 16:28 And the LORD said unto Moses, How long refuse ye to keep my commandments and my laws?
Yes.....I did read your post. Maybe I should have phrased is as "so why would God criticize Egypt and Babylon" instead of "punished". IOW.....to use Egypt and Babylon as derogatory names for Israel is to suggest that they (Egypt and Babylon) behaved in a way that wasn't acceptable. Do you see what I mean? Your point - as I'm understanding it - is that the Gentile nations were under NO obligation to any law.....that was exclusive for the Israelites AFTER Sinai (am I getting that correct?). But.....wouldn't that be unjust of God to use the names of Egypt and Babylon in a derogatory way to call Israel out when there weren't expectations placed on Egypt and Babylon in the first place?Honestly? Did you even really read my post?
He is not talking about them he is speaking about The two kingdoms of Israel and Judah.
Ok, I understand you better. I don't think you were rambling well no more than I myself in similar situations .Yes.....I did read your post. Maybe I should have phrased is as "so why would God criticize Egypt and Babylon" instead of "punished". IOW.....to use Egypt and Babylon as derogatory names for Israel is to suggest that they (Egypt and Babylon) behaved in a way that wasn't acceptable. Do you see what I mean? Your point - as I'm understanding it - is that the Gentile nations were under NO obligation to any law.....that was exclusive for the Israelites AFTER Sinai (am I getting that correct?). But.....wouldn't that be unjust of God to use the names of Egypt and Babylon in a derogatory way to call Israel out when there weren't expectations placed on Egypt and Babylon in the first place?
Let me even try an example: wouldn't you think it's unjust for someone to use YOUR name as a derogatory way to describe someone - to actually insult them/criticize them - for something you never were expected to be or a standard set that you weren't even aware of? If I were to call another person "such a Ralliann" - in a negative way - for anything you weren't ever aware of......a standard you were never informed of that you were supposed to meet......wouldn't you think that's unfair to use you as a negative example? Because I believe there's another reason why God used the names of Egypt and Babylon to describe Israel - and it was something they (Egypt and Babylon) were actually doing/not doing that WAS a standard set for ALL of humanity.....right from the very beginning of creation of humanity (long before the Sinai covenant).
***I feel like this is rambling and not clear. I may have over-explained to the point of more confusion :/
James was written after the scattering but before the 'latter days'. He is saying the 10 Commandments are the Law we are under. What covenant expired?Matt 27:51 indicated a desecration of the temple at Jesus death.
This would suggest the authority of the priesthood was withdrawn at this time.
Some believe that this didn't happen until AD 70...
My view is that the temple continued to operate as a lifeless shell bouyed by religious tradition until the final destruction under the Romans.
I therefore conclude that the Old covenant ceased when Jesus fulfilled the Law and died.
Where is the evidence that this did not happen until AD 70 ?
Comments appreciated.
We need the guidelines in the same way that all sheep need a fenced, safe pasture in which to live, lest they wander off and become lunch for the wolves.
Has the Old Covenant totally ended?
James was written after the scattering but before the 'latter days'. He is saying the 10 Commandments are the Law we are under. What covenant expired?
On what basis do you think the authority of the priest was withdrawn? Paul went to the temple regularly as did Peter and James. Why would they do that if your position was theirs?Matt 27:51 indicated a desecration of the temple at Jesus death.
This would suggest the authority of the priesthood was withdrawn at this time.
Some believe that this didn't happen until AD 70...
My view is that the temple continued to operate as a lifeless shell bouyed by religious tradition until the final destruction under the Romans.
I therefore conclude that the Old covenant ceased when Jesus fulfilled the Law and died.
Where is the evidence that this did not happen until AD 70 ?
Comments appreciated.
They were baby Christians tied to traditions and laws of their time.On what basis do you think the authority of the priest was withdrawn? Paul went to the temple regularly as did Peter and James. Why would they do that if your position was theirs?
It happened in 70 AD because the temple, the priests and all their written material burned and the land plowed under. No one could perform that function so it was then destroyed. God gave them 40 years to repent and not a few did.
On what basis do you think the authority of the priest was withdrawn? Paul went to the temple regularly as did Peter and James. Why would they do that if your position was theirs?
Those “baby christians” wrote the whole of the New Testament demonstrating an understanding of God never rivaled by any man since. We are baby christians compared to them!They were baby Christians tied to traditions and laws of their time.
Adults don't need guidance from babies.
Peter didn’t say that and he went to the temple too. So did John. They all did. Why wouldn’t they? Jesus didn’t tell them before the ascension that the old was NOW over. He even told them to go to the Jews which they did for a long time. No one said it had been replaced until it was obviously gone. God gave the house of Israel time, very kind of Him.Paul speaks about being all things to all men in order to win some.
He spoke of becoming a Jew to win the Jews. This was part of his evangelism strategy. This does not indicate or affirm that the Old Covenant Priesthood was still operating with God's authority.
As Jesus after the resurrection Himself took the position of our High Priest and we ourselves share in the priesthood of all believers, the Old Covenant priesthood has been replaced in Him.
I think it is more than that. Jews were judged by the law. and there was a curse coming upon them specifically which was prophesied in the law. This curse and wrath was preached by John to warn them to escape Gods wrath in the one who came after him. I think the Apostles all were in a race knowing that that wrath was going to fall shortly, to save as many as they could from it. But the prophetic utterance concerning this wrath would later on be turned against the nations which brought that punishment.Peter didn’t say that and he went to the temple too. So did John. They all did. Why wouldn’t they? Jesus didn’t tell them before the ascension that the old was NOW over. He even told them to go to the Jews which they did for a long time. No one said it had been replaced until it was obviously gone. God gave the house of Israel time, very kind of Him.
Ok although I think love motivates not a strategy. He wrote “he has become” more a discovery than a plan.Paul speaks about being all things to all men in order to win some.
He spoke of becoming a Jew to win the Jews. This was part of his evangelism strategy. This does not indicate or affirm that the Old Covenant Priesthood was still operating with God's authority.
As Jesus after the resurrection Himself took the position of our High Priest and we ourselves share in the priesthood of all believers, the Old Covenant priesthood has been replaced in Him.