If you can't re-marry then...

bbbbbbb

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I agree. It's one thing to say that there is a new covenant or that the Mosaic Law is set aside, but if we are referring to something Jesus taught personally, that's a different matter.

The difficulty comes in knowing the complete context for the statement. What we have in the gospel accounts is a summary of what Jesus said and did. John, at the end of his gospel, stated clearly that if everything that Jesus said and did were written down, the world could not hold all of the books. I certainly believe that to be true. Hence, i am able to understand otherwise conflicting gospel records of identical situations. If we were to limit our knowledge to what was only written down we would, perforce, need to confess (if we are honest) that there are contradictions between the gospels.
 
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Contenders Edge

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..are you allowed to have a new boyfriend/girlfriend? According to the Bible I know you can't re-marry.
Matthew 5:31-32
It has been said, 'Anyone who divorces his wife must give her a certificate of divorce. But I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, except for marital unfaithfulness, causes her to become an adulteress, and anyone who marries the divorced woman commits adultery.


I am not sure what your particular situation is, but besides marital unfaithfulness, as stated in the passage you cited, another circumstance under which it is permissible to remarry would be if a divorce occurs over religious differences (i.e. one person in a marital relationship becomes Christian and is divorced or deserted by their spouse on account of their giving their life to Christ. (1 Cor. 7:15)
 
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Albion

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John, at the end of his gospel, stated clearly that if everything that Jesus said and did were written down, the world could not hold all of the books.
I certainly do not take that to mean that what has been written down and is explicit...isn't authoritative.
 
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S.O.J.I.A.

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Apparently you must believe that Rahab is frying in hell this very moment because she told a whopper of a lie.

Hebrews 11:31 By faith Rahab the harlot did not perish along with those who were disobedient, after she had welcomed the spies in peace.
Not sure what this has to do with the price of tea in China but cool story bro.
 
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1213

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That doesn't make sense, because that means habitual fornicators aren't showing themselves to be unconverted / won't go to hell (Gal 5:19-21). After all, they'd only fornicate one time, and then they'd be married. Every subsequent act of sex would not be fornication.

I have understood fornication means illicit sexual intercourse. If man and woman are both virgins, it is not illicit that they have sex (unless close relatives). And once they have had that, they would be married. And if after that they would have sex with some other person, it would probably be illicit sexual intercourse.
 
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blackhole

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I have understood fornication means illicit sexual intercourse. If man and woman are both virgins, it is not illicit that they have sex (unless close relatives). And once they have had that, they would be married. And if after that they would have sex with some other person, it would probably be illicit sexual intercourse.

No, because that would mean that the second offense is adultery, and not fornication.

Again, that would make ongoing fornication impossible; it would have upgraded to ongoing adultery.
 
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Petros2015

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bbbbbbb

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Not sure what this has to do with the price of tea in China but cool story bro.

My point, of course, is that if one takes a completely literal interpretation of the various commandments of the Bible one is frequently faced with exceptions such as Rahab.

God specifically commanded "You shall not lie" and that commandment has never been abridged, so that in Revelation 21 we read - 8 But for the cowardly and unbelieving and abominable and murderers and immoral persons and sorcerers and idolaters and all liars, their part will be in the lake that burns with fire and brimstone, which is the second death.”

There is no doubt whatsoever that Rahab told a whopper of a lie and that she was commended by God for doing so. Do you think she is in heaven or in hell now?
 
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bbbbbbb

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I certainly do not take that to mean that what has been written down and is explicit...isn't authoritative.

I agree with you that what is explicit is authoritative. i frequently tell my friends who insist that various doctrines are implied in scripture that I will start worrying about those things after I have obeyed that which is explicit.

That said, there are other passages which are explicit which modify (not contradict) various other passages. Thus, one must keep in view the entirety of scripture and not a few isolated verses.

In this case, an argument can be made that Jesus prohibited divorce for any reason (although Moses explicitly was understood to allow it). Jesus then allows divorce in the case of immorality.
 
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GenemZ

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..are you allowed to have a new boyfriend/girlfriend? According to the Bible I know you can't re-marry.
Matthew 5:31-32
It has been said, 'Anyone who divorces his wife must give her a certificate of divorce. But I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, except for marital unfaithfulness, causes her to become an adulteress, and anyone who marries the divorced woman commits adultery.

The corrupt legalism of the Pharisees had corrupted Judaism in Jesus day. Men were filing for divorce over a misuse of an "unclean" gimmick.

A woman who was unclean it was grounds for sending away. But, men learned to abuse the Law.

For example.. If a man no longer wanted his wife? He could knowingly send her to a house to run an errand where a dead person was inside. Once inside, she was considered unclean .. and by "technicality" of the Law... the husband could declare her unclean, and file for a writ of divorce. There was a great abuse of distorting the Law going on at that time. Jesus was speaking out against it.

“Furthermore it has been said, ‘Whoever divorces his wife,
let him give her a certificate of divorce.’ But I say to you
that whoever divorces his wife for any reason except sexual
immorality causes her to commit adultery; and whoever
marries a woman who is divorced commits adultery."


The reason the husband gave and sent her away with the "unclean gimmick?" Was not a legitimate divorce in God's eyes. God still saw the wife and husband as one flesh.

So when a cold-hearted husband sent his wife away? He was forcing whomever she began a new relationship with to be committing adultery in God's eyes. For God saw them as yet married!

Jesus stated that the only legitimate grounds for divorce was when a mate had committed adultery. Then the innocent one was free to remarry in that case.



When a man has courted/taken a wife,
and married her,
and after a lapse of time
she finds no favor in his eyes
(no longer loved by the husband),
because he has found
'some uncleanness'/'something shameful' in her
(the Lord told us this meant 'unfaithfulness' -
was distorted into any excuse to get rid of her -
but this is a abuse of the Mosaic Law),
then let him write her a bill of divorcement,
and give it in her hand,
and send her out of his house."
Duet 24:1
 
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thelord's_pearl

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Yes, Jesus said that, but other passages tell about our need to repent of our past sins and God's willingness to forgive us because of Jesus' death. If you have repented of your part in past relationships, I believe that you are free to have another relationship, as long as it would avoid the sin of sexual immorality before the wedding.
What really is sexual immorality: 'sexual intercourse' or 'making out' also? And how do you really know from the bible?
 
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thelord's_pearl

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“Furthermore it has been said, ‘Whoever divorces his wife,
let him give her a certificate of divorce.’ But I say to you
that whoever divorces his wife for any reason except sexual
immorality causes her to commit adultery; and whoever
marries a woman who is divorced commits adultery."


The reason the husband gave and sent her away with the "unclean gimmick?" Was not a legitimate divorce in God's eyes. God still saw the wife and husband as one flesh.

So when a cold-hearted husband sent his wife away? He was forcing whomever she began a new relationship with to be committing adultery in God's eyes. For God saw them as yet married!

Jesus stated that the only legitimate grounds for divorce was when a mate had committed adultery. Then the innocent one was free to remarry in that case.
You quoted it, but I interpreted it differently. I read it as everything it said and then a semi colon, a whole new sentence.. '; and whoever marries a woman who is divorced commits adultery.' Which is saying ;and whoever marries "a woman who is divorced" commits adultery, which is any woman who is divorced, "a" 'woman who is divorced'. Are you sure you're correct?
 
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bbbbbbb

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is that what the passage actually says?

No. It is what the writer of Hebrews said.

Hebrews 11:31 By faith Rahab the harlot did not perish along with those who were disobedient, after she had welcomed the spies in peace.

Not only was Rahab a liar, but she was also a harlot. However, I suppose that, as such, she would be free to marry, but not remarry.
 
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S.O.J.I.A.

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By faith Rahab the harlot did not perish along with those who were disobedient, after she had welcomed the spies in peace
where does it say she was commended for telling a lie.....or for being a harlot?
 
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SkyWriting

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Dave L

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I covered 11 provisions for divorce in the NT.
Sunday at 7:36 AM#57

It was only because of a vision Mary had, that she remained married to Joseph.
This is mostly Old Testament teaching by Jesus. Not part of the New Covenant. Divorce is not an option for a believer in the NT.
 
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S.O.J.I.A.

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According to you, God should have struck her dead for both of these sins, so why do you think she was spared?

Where do you think she is at this moment?

she wasn't commended for lying or being a harlot, she was commended for her faith in helping the spies that joshua sent out to survey the land and for believing the LORD had given it to Israel.

so your point is moot.
 
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Isilwen

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she wasn't commended for lying or being a harlot, she was commended for her faith in helping the spies that joshua sent out to survey the land and for believing the LORD had given it to Israel.

so your point is moot.

What did she do though while exercising her faith? Did she not lie?

That is his point. She lied to keep the spies safe. Is not a lie a lie?

Another good question is, where do you think those who lied during World War II will be who hid the Jewish people? Did they not lie?
 
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