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If you're taking the whole sweep of scripture into account, shouldn't there be a distinction made between Sheol, Hades, Hell, and Paradise? Sheol and Hades were very similar conceptions in that everyone went there. The difference is that one was Hebrew (Sheol) and the other Greek (Hades).
Moreover, the idea that one's moral failures or successes contributed to one's state in the afterlife was a development over time. Initially, as can be seen in the early Old Testament books, moral failures or successes contributed to the future state of the nation and it's relationship to the land, not to the afterlife.
I think any interpretation of the parable in reference in the OP needs to take these considerations into account. By the time Jesus gives that parable there has been a significant shift in how the afterlife was conceived. And yet, maybe some aspects of the old conceptions were still lingering, e.g. Abraham's bosom.
Moreover, the idea that one's moral failures or successes contributed to one's state in the afterlife was a development over time. Initially, as can be seen in the early Old Testament books, moral failures or successes contributed to the future state of the nation and it's relationship to the land, not to the afterlife.
I think any interpretation of the parable in reference in the OP needs to take these considerations into account. By the time Jesus gives that parable there has been a significant shift in how the afterlife was conceived. And yet, maybe some aspects of the old conceptions were still lingering, e.g. Abraham's bosom.
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