- May 15, 2005
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Anyone who claims that any portion of the Bible "is in error" has totally disqualified himself from consideration as a commentator on scriptural subjects.I presume the underlined is something you take literally.
Deuteronomy 5:3 (NKJV)
3 The LORD did not make this covenant with our fathers, but with us, those who are here today, all of us who are alive.
Taking this literally was made with only those who were alive on that day; but what about Exodus 31:16 (NKJV)
16 Therefore the children of Israel shall keep the Sabbath, to observe the Sabbath throughout their generations as a perpetual covenant.
Deuteronomy 5:14 (NKJV)
14 but the seventh day is the Sabbath of the LORD your God. In it you shall do no work: you, nor your son, nor your daughter, nor your male servant, nor your female servant, nor your ox, nor your donkey, nor any of your cattle, nor your stranger who is within your gates, that your male servant and your female servant may rest as well as you.
So the gentile within the gate has to keep the Sabbath also. And add Abraham's covenant, the gentile also needs to be circumcised.
<<Hebrews 7:12 (NKJV)
12 For the priesthood being changed, of necessity there is also a change of the law. >>
Once again taking literature illiterately fails. Also I believe the writer of Hebrews is in error. I have never noticed this before but the reason Hebrews gives for changing the Law is that Jesus was a Jew and Jews under Moses were not priests; so because Jesus was a Jew the Law need to be changed to allow a Jew to be a priest (Hew 7:14). As well as being a Jew I expect Jesus was a descendant of all the tribes; Mary's father or uncle was a priest.
With out the Law unchanged, Jesus would have no credentials, the office and duties of High Priest would be undefined; it is true that the administration of the Law is different but that does not require a change in Law.
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