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Why is the day of worship controversial?

LoveGodsWord

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No, There's no indication about a partial copy. You don't want to believe verse 32 is all.

Your confused. The scriptures do not say JOSHUA copied all the 5 BOOKS of MOSES. Read the scriptures and look at the CONTEXT.

[30], Then JOSHUA BUILT AN ALTER TO THE LORD God of Israel in mount Ebal,
[31], AS MOSES THE SERVANT OF THE LORD COMMANDED THE CHILDREN OF ISRAEL, AS IT IS WRITEN IN THE BOOK OF THE LAW OF MOSES, AN ALTER OF WHOLE STONES, OVER WHICH NO MAN HAS LIFTED ANY IRON; AND THEY OFFERED THEREON BURNT OFFERINGS AND PEACE OFFERINGS.

This section is referring to TO DEUTERONOMY 27:4-5 from the BOOK of the Law of MOSES BLESSINGS and CURSINGS of the law for building an Altar once the ISRAEL crossed the Jordan.

[32], And HE WROTE THERE ON THE STONES A COPY OF THE LAW OF MOSES, WHICH HE WROTE IN THE PRESENCE OF THE CHUILDREN OF ISRAEL.

This is the law of BLESSINGS and CURSINGS written in the BOOK of the LAW of MOSES.

[33], And all Israel, and their elders, and officers, and their judges, stood on this side the ark and on that side before the priests the Levites, which bore the ark of the covenant of the LORD, as well the stranger, as he that was born among them; half of them over against mount Gerizim, and half of them over against mount Ebal; as Moses the servant of the LORD had commanded before, that they should bless the people of Israel.

[34], And AFTERWARD HE READ, THE BLESSINGS AND THE CURSINGS, ACCORDING TO ALL THAT IS WRITTEN IN THE BOOK OF THE LAW .

NOTE: See the context you leave out brother? So with the context added back in we read..

[35], There was not a word of all that Moses commanded, [according to the BLESSINGS AND CURSINGS WRITTEN IN THE BOOK OF THE LAW - Please see DEAUTERONOMY 27 and DEUTERONOMY 28] which Joshua read not before all the congregation of Israel, with the women, and the little ones, and the strangers that were conversant among them.

NOTE: Now brother follow this very carefully at the CONTEXT you leave out. v30 JOSHUA BUILT and ALTAR. v31 says the ALTAR was built as MOSES commanded AS IT IS WRITTEN IN THE BOOK OF THE LAW OF MOSES. This LAW of MOSES for BUILDING an ALTAR is FOUND in the BOOK of the LAW of BLESSINGS and CURSINGS. The LAW of MOSES for building an ALTER in the laws of BLESSINGS and CURSINGS in DEUTERONOMY 27:5-8

...............

Now look where JOSHUA 8:30-35 is quoting from DEUTERONOMY 27:4-8

THE LAW OF MOSES IN JOSHAU 8 IS THE LAW OF BLESSINGS AND CURSINGS

DEUTERONOMY 27:4-8
[4], THEREFORE IT SHALL BE WHEN YOUBE GONE OVER JORDAN, THAT YOU SHALL SET UP THESE STONES WHICH I COMMAND YOU this day, in mount Ebal, and you shall plaster them with plaster.
[5], And THERE YOU SHALL BUILD AN ALTER TO THE LORD YOUR GOD, AN ALTER OF STONES; YOU SHALL NOT LIFT UP ANY IRON TOOL ON THEM

NOTE: Sound familar? See JOSHUA 8:31

[6], You shall build the altar of the LORD your God of whole stones: and YOU SHALL OFFER BURN'T OFFERINGS to the LORD your God:

NOTE: Sound familar? See JOSHUA 8:31

[7], And YOU SHALL OFFER PEACE OFFERINGS, and shall eat there, and rejoice before the LORD your God.

NOTE: Sound familar? See JOSHUA 8:31


[8], AND YOU SHALL WRITE ON THE STONES ALL THE WORDS OF THIS LAW VERY PLAINLY.

NOTE: Sound familar? See JOSHUA 8:32 DEUTERONOMY 27 and DEUTERONOMY 28 is the law of BLESSINGS AND CURSINGS from the BOOK of the law of MOSES.

Can you see your error here now brother? It is very clear that what was written on the stones was the BLESSINGS AND THE CURSINGS from the MOSAIC BOOK of the law and not God's 10 Commandments. JOSHUA 8:30-35 is quoting directly from DEUTERONOMY 27:4-8 and the BLESSINGS and CURSINGS from DEUTERONOMY 27 and DEUTERONOMY 28.

Hope this helps.
 
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LoveGodsWord

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Forgive me. I forgot you don't understand tongue-in-cheek expressions. Sure Moses required keeping the famous 10. They're also called the Law of Moses also in 1 Kings, Daniel, Malachi and John all refer to the famous 10 as the Law of Moses.

Your error is that you mix up God's ETERNAL LAW (10 commandments) with the SHADOW laws from the MOSAIC BOOK of the LAW * DEUTERONOMY 31:26 from the MOSAIC BOOK of the COVENANT *EXODUS 24:7. God's ETERNAL LAW (10 Commandments) give us the KNOWLEDGE of GOOD and EVIL; SIN and RIGHTOUESNESS *ROMANS 3:20; ROMANS 7:7; 1 JOHN 3:4; PSALMS 119:172.

God's WORD says that if we KNOWINGLY break any one of God's 10 Commandments we stand guilty before GOD of SIN *JAMES 2:10-11. God's 4th COMMANDMENT is one of the 10 Commandments *EXODUS 20:8-11. All those who KNOWINGLY CONTINUE in KNOWN UNREPENTANT SIN will not enter into God's KINGDOM *HEBREWS 10:26-27 because they reject the gift of God's dear son *ROMANS 6:23.

Sorry brother God's WORD disagrees with you.
 
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LoveGodsWord

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What you have is a denial of Scripture.

If I denied God's WORD I would not believe the scriptures. I BELIEVE and FOLLOW God's WORD therefore I am not in DENIAL of God's WORD. It is God's WORD that bears witness with my Spirit that I BELIEVE and FOLLOW him because I follow him in truth *ROMANS 8:16; 1 JOHN 5:6. If we deny God's WORD we deny God's Spirit because the SPIRIT is the SPIRIT of the WORD in truth that saves us from sin *JOHN 6:63; JOHN 17:17. It is your words that bear witness of yourself therefore your words are not true. Only God's WORD is true and we should believe and follow it over the teachings and traditions of men that break the commandments of God *ROMANS 3:4; MATTHEW 15:8-9; ACTS 5:29.
 
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LoveGodsWord

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Why of course I'm confused because I believe Jer 31:31-33. You're not because you don't accept the middle verse.

I BELIEVE and FOLLOW all of God's WORD and I have no confusion. If you have confusion then your understanding of the scriptures is at fault. God's WORD does not contradict itself.
 
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ExTiff

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BobRyan commented: Is this the way you respond to anyone who says "it is still a sin to take God's name in vain"??

Is it a charge of "legalism" that you bring against them for daring to affirm God's Ten Commandments?

Just about everything you say and do, if it is not said and done in 'love', is sin Bob. Get used to the idea that you are an undeserving sinner saved by grace and stop telling others how to keep the law. You and I are no experts at it. That is not our mission on earth. We are entrusted with the message of reconciliation not given a mandate by God to condemn others. The only one who could have cast the first stone did not and he said "Everyone who speaks a word against the Son of Man will be forgiven, but the person who blasphemes against the Holy Spirit will not be forgiven." When you can accurately define what was meant by 'blasphemy of the Holy Spirit', then feel free to warn anyone who has done so, but if you can't define it, it is best to withold judgment and assume the role of a servant of Christ with a gospel to proclaim. As we are forgiven, so we should forgive. Luke 6:37.

As to your 'legalism' comment, they do not affirm God's Ten Commandments by stringently keeping the whole of the law themselves though, do they. They ultimately see salvation of the world as being achieved by the universal imposition of the law. They think that by rule keeping they will escape God's wrath. Thus they preach a gospel of a 'wrathful God', which can be escaped by subjection to the law. At root they think they have a bargain with God which they are successfully keeping their side of. They don't. All have sinned and fallen short. None are righteous enough to cast a condemnatory stone at a sinner.

We preach a gospel of redemption by a God who no longer holds the worlds sins against it, but has died and was risen again to life in order to save the world rather than condemn it. John 3:17
 
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ace of hearts

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May I ask what is so important about what Joshua wrote on the altar he built? The words were not his --it say he copied the words of Moses. Doesn't say a thing about copying what God wrote. Then it says he read everything that Moses had commanded.
Jos 8:35 There was not a word of all that Moses commanded, which Joshua read not before all the congregation of Israel, with the women, and the little ones, and the strangers that were conversant among them.
The point is the famous 10 are called the Law of Moses. The truth is the verse includes them. The verse doesn't exclude anything from the Book of the Law. This is the only witness you have that makes them known. I suppose you might use a NT passage to say other wise. But I'd only ask what they're actually quoting from.
He was carrying the Ark with them---the Ark contained the tables of stone that God wrote. I'm sorry,
I guess I must have lost track of the importance of what Joshua wrote.
What does the verse say?
 
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LoveGodsWord

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The point is the famous 10 are called the Law of Moses.

You are confused please read post # 381 linked click me, above that completely dismantles your interpretation of JOSHUA 8:32. The scriptures in JOSHUA 8:30-35 with CONTEXT is referring to the BLESSINGS AND CURSINGS from the BOOK of the law found in DEUTERONOMY 27 and DEUTERONOMY 28. Take a look at JOSHUA 8:30-35 then look at DETERONOMY 27:4-8 you will see what JOSHUA 8:30-35 is referring to word for word.
 
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ace of hearts

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Not at all. It is only confusing to you because you are confused in your understanding on God's ETERNAL law (10 commandments) and the SHADOW laws of the MOSIAC BOOK of the COVENANT *EXODUS 24:7. The scripture proves your interpretation of God's ETERNAL law is false and forever and gives us the KNOWLEDGE of GOOD and EVIL; SIN and RIGHTOUESNESS *ROMANS 3:20; ROMANS 7:7; 1 JOHN 3:4; PSALMS 119:172.
I'll give you an opportunity to explain Ecc 3:14.
 
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LoveGodsWord

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I'll give you an opportunity to explain Ecc 3:14.

I do not need any opportunity. Did God make the 10 commandments and were the 10 commandments the work of God alone *EXODUS 32:16?

ECCLESIASTES 3:14, I know that, whatever God does, it shall be for ever: nothing can be put to it, nor any thing taken from it: and God does it, that men should fear before him.

Fear God, and give glory to him; for the hour of his judgment is come: and worship him that made heaven, and earth, and the sea, and the fountains of waters REVELATION 14:7

Hope this helps
 
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ace of hearts

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If I denied God's WORD I would not believe the scriptures. I BELIEVE and FOLLOW God's WORD therefore I am not in DENIAL of God's WORD. It is God's WORD that bears witness with my Spirit that I BELIEVE and FOLLOW him because I follow him in truth *ROMANS 8:16; 1 JOHN 5:6. If we deny God's WORD we deny God's Spirit because the SPIRIT is the SPIRIT of the WORD in truth that saves us from sin *JOHN 6:63; JOHN 17:17. It is your words that bear witness of yourself therefore your words are not true. Only God's WORD is true and we should believe and follow it over the teachings and traditions of men that break the commandments of God *ROMANS 3:4; MATTHEW 15:8-9; ACTS 5:29.
Saying something doesn't make it true.
 
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ace of hearts

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I BELIEVE and FOLLOW all of God's WORD and I have no confusion. If you have confusion then your understanding of the scriptures is at fault. God's WORD does not contradict itself.
I agree God's Word doesn't contradict itself. The New Covenant isn't like Old Covenant no matter how much you try to say it's the same only moved. It doesn't matter to me how many times you claim the New Covenant is only made with and includes only Israel. The NT proves that's wrong with many passages. I've already pointed you to some of them in the Gospels. Oh yeah another one just came to mind -

Mat 28:19 Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost:

20 Teaching them to observe all things whatsoever I have commanded you: and, lo, I am with you always, even unto the end of the world. Amen.

No where does the above say anything about Israel.
 
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LoveGodsWord

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I agree God's Word doesn't contradict itself. The New Covenant isn't like Old Covenant no matter how much you try to say it's the same only moved. It doesn't matter to me how many times you claim the New Covenant is only made with and includes only Israel. The NT proves that's wrong with many passages. I've already pointed you to some of them in the Gospels. Oh yeah another one just came to mind -

Mat 28:19 Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost:

20 Teaching them to observe all things whatsoever I have commanded you: and, lo, I am with you always, even unto the end of the world. Amen.

No where does the above say anything about Israel.

INDEED the NEW COVENANT is not like the OLD COVENANT no one said it was. If you do not know what the OLD COVENANT was how can you know what the NEW COVENANT is that the OLD COVENANT pointed to? It is God's WORD not mine that says God's NEW COVENANT is to GOD'S ISRAE not mine

HEBREWS 8:10-12 [10], For this is the covenant that I will make with the HOUSE OF ISRAEL after those days, says the Lord; I will put my laws into their mind, and write them in their hearts: and I will be to them a God, and they shall be to me a people:[11], And they shall not teach every man his neighbor, and every man his brother, saying, Know the Lord: for all shall know me, from the least to the greatest.[12], For I will be merciful to their unrighteousness, and their sins and their iniquities will I remember no more.

If you are not a part of God's ISRAEL who are all those who BELIEVE and FOLLOW God's WORD you have no part in the NEW COVENANT. Gentiles are now grafted in *ROMANS 11:13-27.

Sorry my friend God's WORD disagrees with you.
 
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ace of hearts

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You are confused please read post # 381 linked click me, above that completely dismantles your interpretation of JOSHUA 8:32. The scriptures in JOSHUA 8:30-35 with CONTEXT is referring to the BLESSINGS AND CURSINGS from the BOOK of the law found in DEUTERONOMY 27 and DEUTERONOMY 28. Take a look at JOSHUA 8:30-35 then look at DETERONOMY 27:4-8 you will see what JOSHUA 8:30-35 is referring to word for word.
I didn't say anything about Jos 8:23 other than it calls the famous 10 the law of Moses. And that is by inclusion. You protest that we don't know what Joshua actually wrote. I chose to believe the verse as written. You can't prove the verse is false by context. You must prove the verse is a pollution of Scripture. Be sure to include your sources.
 
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ace of hearts

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I do not need any opportunity. Did God make the 10 commandments and were the 10 commandments the work of God alone *EXODUS 32:16?

ECCLESIASTES 3:14, I know that, whatever God does, it shall be for ever: nothing can be put to it, nor any thing taken from it: and God does it, that men should fear before him.

Fear God, and give glory to him; for the hour of his judgment is come: and worship him that made heaven, and earth, and the sea, and the fountains of waters REVELATION 14:7

Hope this helps
Then please explain -

Not according to the covenant that I made with their fathers in the day that I took them by the hand to bring them out of the land of Egypt; which my covenant they brake, although I was an husband unto them, saith the Lord:
 
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LoveGodsWord

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I didn't say anything about Jos 8:23 other than it calls the famous 10 the law of Moses. And that is by inclusion. You protest that we don't know what Joshua actually wrote. I chose to believe the verse as written. You can't prove the verse is false by context. You must prove the verse is a pollution of Scripture. Be sure to include your sources.

Why not try responding to the post you are quoting from which was reponding to your use of JOSHUA 8:32? Please read post # 381 linked click me, above that disagress with your interpretation of JOSHUA 8:32. The scriptures in JOSHUA 8:30-35 with CONTEXT is referring to the BLESSINGS AND CURSINGS from the BOOK of the law found in DEUTERONOMY 27 and DEUTERONOMY 28. Take a look at JOSHUA 8:30-35 then look at DETERONOMY 27:4-8 you will see what JOSHUA 8:30-35 is referring to word for word.
 
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LoveGodsWord

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Then please explain -

Not according to the covenant that I made with their fathers in the day that I took them by the hand to bring them out of the land of Egypt; which my covenant they brake, although I was an husband unto them, saith the Lord:

What do you need explained? The scriptures are very clear. The NEW COVENANT is not the same as the OLD COVENANT. If you do not know what the OLD COVENANT was however, how can you know what the NEW COVENANT is that the OLD COVENANT pointed to?
 
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ace of hearts

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INDEED the NEW COVENANT is not like the OLD COVENANT no one said it was. If you do not know what the OLD COVENANT was how can you know what the NEW COVENANT is that the OLD COVENANT pointed to? It is God's WORD not mine that says God's NEW COVENANT is to GOD'S ISRAE not mine

HEBREWS 8:10-12 [10], For this is the covenant that I will make with the HOUSE OF ISRAEL after those days, says the Lord; I will put my laws into their mind, and write them in their hearts: and I will be to them a God, and they shall be to me a people:[11], And they shall not teach every man his neighbor, and every man his brother, saying, Know the Lord: for all shall know me, from the least to the greatest.[12], For I will be merciful to their unrighteousness, and their sins and their iniquities will I remember no more.

If you are not a part of God's ISRAEL who are all those who BELIEVE and FOLLOW God's WORD you have no part in the NEW COVENANT. Gentiles are now grafted in *ROMANS 11:13-27.

Sorry my friend God's WORD disagrees with you.
How does that relate to Mat 28?
 
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ace of hearts

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I guess this is about as good a place to post this-
I do not remember which thread or post it was here is a re-post just for you.

ROMANS 7 AND ROMANS 8 GOD'S LAW ABOLISHED? OR IS IT SIN? PART 1/4
I've noticed you don't use ten commandments. Instead you use God's law. When it comes to law I believe there's a difference. It wasn't God's law that was added. It was what we normally call the law (famous 10) that has been added. God's law was before sin. The famous 10 weren't. My proof is Gen 26:5 and Deut 5:1-3.
This study is put forward as some try to argue through presenting a half verse in ROMANS 7:6 to say God's LAW has been ABOLISHED leaving out CONTEXT in both chapter and scripture.
Not the case. We don't promote the law (famous 10) as being annihilated. We do agree with Mat 5:17-18 and LK 24:44.
Those who argue God's LAW is ABOLISHED quote the first half of ROMANS 7:6 (empasized) to argue God's LAW is abolished.
We also quote from the prophets, who you quote half sentences from changing the meaning of God's Word. We do also quote from the Gospels. So what we support isn't just the words of the despised Paul.
ROMANS 7:6 [6], But now, by dying to what once bound us, we have been released from the law so that we serve in the new way of the Spirit, and not in the old way of the written code.
Quoting to the first coma (KJV) or the second coma in your version doesn't change the meaning of the verse nor the fact that we are delivered (released - your version) from as true.

What were we held in (KJV), bound in your version? You say sin, yet the verse says the law meaning the famous 10 by quote in the next verse of them. Now we serve in newness of Spirit. We no longer serve by the written code (law, famous 10)(your version) letter (KJV).
Let's now look at both the chapter and within scripture context that is missing to this interpretation...

Let's start with what is being ignored within the scripture (emphasis in red)

ROMANS 7:6 [6], But now, by dying to what once bound us, we have been released from the law so that we serve in the new way of the Spirit, and not in the old way of the written code.
Ignored? By who? Me? When?

Interesting enough you reference and quote Romans 3:21 in support of being required to keep this law. And yes you're referring to the written code (famous 10) when you do so. So why do you promote that in light of this verse in context by quote of the next that we're released from. You're just not consistent.
Question. What was it that God's LAW shows in ROMANS 7 that has bound us? Let's go back to the verse that is before....

ROMANS 7:5 [5], For when we were in the FLESH <G4561 Carnal mind or sinful human nature>, the motions of SINS, which were by the law, did work in our members to bring forth fruit to death [NOTE: ROMANS 6:23 the wages of sin is death].
What caused the motions of sin? The law. What law? Verse 7 says the famous 10. The verse doesn't read - For when we were in the flesh, the motions of sins did work in our members to bring forth fruit to death. My back up is -

8 But sin, taking occasion by the commandment, wrought in me all manner of concupiscence. For without the law sin was dead.

9 For I was alive without the law once: but when the commandment came, sin revived, and I died.

Rom 4:15 Because the law worketh wrath: for where no law is, there is no transgression.

Rom 5:13 For until the law sin was in the world: but sin is not imputed when there is no law.
Answer. It is SIN that has bound us! Not God's LAW.
While it's sin that bound us is true. It's also true that the Jews Paul is speaking to were also bound by the law (famous 10). So is your point here that we're not bound (obligated to) the famous 10? Can't be when your total volume of posts are considered. You clearly promote being bound by the law (famous 10).

Sin isn't the subject of Romans 7. The central theme and subject is law, specifically the famous 10 by quote. Paul says it's the law which caused violation (sin).
<* NOTE: the key to this verse is delivered from the law, being dead to that in which we were held or bound us. The law revived and I died... Why? Because the LAW gave a KNOWLEDDGE of SIN. It is SIN that God's LAW holds us to. It is SIN that we are delivered from by dying to it not God's LAW.>
Here you make a clear statement we were bound by the law. When it comes to the Jews I agree. Gentiles were never obligated to the famous 10. The statement also indicates we don't come to the law as gentiles. That would mean we're bound by the law against what the verse says.
The GREEK (interlinear) translation to english of ROMANS 7:6 is...
"Now however we have been released from the law having died to that which bound us"
No problem for me there. Serious problem for you. No mention of sin in that quote.
Now we could stop here but in the next post let's look at little deeper into Romans 7 and Romans 8 showing how they bring in the NEW COVENANT promise of God's LAW being written on the heart of those who have faith in God's WORD...
Swell! No problem.
............

Q. How are we released from the LAW?
Why are you asking this question? Isn't your intention that we're released only from sin and not the law? You do teach and promote a requirement to keep the covenant law given only to Israel - the famous 10.
ἀποθανόντες ἐν ᾧ κατειχόμεθα ; having died to that which bound us
This isn't a reference to sin. You talk about being release from the law but claim it's sin that bound us. Just following the flow here you claim we're released from the law. Please get your act together.
The GREEK (interlinear) translation to english of ROMANS 7:6 is...
"Now however we have been released from the law having died to that which bound us"
Agree here.
The scripture context is saying we are released from the PENALTY AND CONDEMNATION of God's LAW because of the SIN that BOUND us. God's LAW has not BOUND us SIN does. Through God's FORGIVENESS we are released from the condemnation and penalty of God's LAW which is DEATH v5 [SIN = FRUIT UNTO DEATH].
No. Verse 5 says sin was caused by the law. It says nothing about being removed from any penalty. Jews were bound by both. Gentiles never were. Every law I know of requires punishment for any violation. If you take away the required punishment for violation, law becomes nothing more than an empty suggestion.
This has already been shown in the CONTEXT of the surrounding scripture for v6 CONTEXT is the SIN that BOUND us not God's LAW v5. God's LAW gives us the KNOWLEDGE of what sin is v7.
No the context is clearly about the law. The subject is clear by the question - Is the law sin? The discussion then proceeds to be comments about the law mentioned 3 more times.
ROMANS 7:6 [6], But now, by dying to what once bound us, we have been released from the law so that we serve in the new way of the Spirit, and not in the old way of the written code.
I still agree with the verse as quoted. It plainly says "...we have been released from the law.." There's absolutely no text or context for "But now, by dying to what once bound us..." being sin.
Question. What was it that God's LAW shows in ROMANS 7 that has bound us? v7-8 tells us it is SIN that has bound us.

ROMANS 7:7-8 [7], What shall we say then? Is the law sin? God forbid. No, I had not known sin, but by the law: for I had not known lust, except the law had said, You shall not covet. [8], But sin, taking occasion by the commandment, worked in me all manner of concupiscence. For without the law sin was dead.
Yes "For without the law sin was dead." Verse 7 clearly says sin was caused by the law. It says noting about being bound by sin.
Now let's go back to the verse that is before....

ROMANS 7:5 [5], For when we were in the FLESH <G4561 Carnal mind or sinful human nature>, the motions of SINS, which were by the law, did work in our members to bring forth fruit to death.

Answer. It is SIN that has bound us! Not God's LAW because the wages of SIN is death to those who have not received the GIFT of God's dear son. (Romans 6:23). We are released from the wages of sin and the condemnation of Gods law through Christ and God's forgiveness. *ROMANS 8:1-4.
The verse says nothing about being bound by sin. The verse talks about how the law works. Yes I agree the wages of sin is death. That however doesn't mean we were or are bound by it. Yes I believe we were bound by sin. That isn't the subject of Romans anywhere. It certainly isn't the context, subject or focus of Romans 7.
<* NOTE: the key to this verse is delivered from the law, being dead to that in which we were held. The law revived and I died... Why? Because the LAW gave a KNOWLEDDGE of SIN. It is SIN that God's LAW holds us to. It is SIN that we are delivered from not God's LAW.>
No. God nor His law holds (binds) us to sin. God's law charges violators and punishes them. There's so many great verses to quote here. Righteousness is without the law -

3:21 But now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested, being witnessed by the law and the prophets.

3:28 Therefore we conclude that a man is justified by faith without the deeds of the law.

Both from Romans. What I'd like to know from you is how can either of those verses be about ceremonial law you claim is no longer in force.

You charge others with guilt (unrighteousness/sin) by law that has been rescinded and no longer having any jurisdiction. (Jer 31:31-33; LK 22:20) Therefore your charge is false.

There's no condemnation to those in Christ Jesus by anything including the law - Romans 8:1.
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Here are a few different bible versions of the same scripture...
None of which prove your point. So I deleted them for brevity.
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CONCLUSION: It is that which binds us that we are released from. It is SIN that binds us not God's LAW. We are released from SIN and the penalty of SIN by walking in the SPIRIT of the NEW COVENANT promise by FAITH (ROMANS 8:1-4)...
Sorry about your conflicting statement here. You boldly proclaim we're bound to the law. Not a single one of your passages indicate bondage to sin. All your quotes are about the law.
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[7], What shall we say then? is the law sin? God forbid. Nay, I had not known sin, but by the law: for I had not known lust, except the law had said, you shall not covet.

[8], But sin, taking occasion by the commandment, worked in me all manner of covetousness. For without the law sin was dead.

[9], For I was alive apart from the law once: but when the commandment came, sin revived, and I died.
The subject is the law, not sin.
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CONCLUSION: ROMANS 7 and ROMANS 8 are talking about the NEW COVENANT promise of SALVATION from SIN; not salvation in SIN. We are not released from God's LAW (10 Commandments) as it is the KNOWLEDGE of what SIN is. We are released from SIN and the PENALTY of SIN and the law of SIN and DEATH (7v5-25; 8v2 6v23) by walking in the Spirit of the NEW COVENANT (8v1) we do not fulfill the lusts of the flesh (SIN). If you have not died to that which holds you captive (SIN) you are not released from the LAW you are UNDER the LAW Guilty before God of SIN.

Hope this helps brother.
Your conclusion is partially correct. We're delivered from both the law and guilt of sin. No where have I ever promoted salvation in sin. You claim it's sin to not keep the law given only to a select people, namely Israel. Not even a Christian Israeli is obligated to the Old Covenant law because of the New Covenant established by Jesus Christ as promised by Jeremiah.
 
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