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Canadian SC: Christian law school can't forbid students from gay sex

Dave-W

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Thank you for dispelling the myth that Sodom was solely destroyed because of homosexuality.
I was as shocked as anyone when I came across that passage (and REALLY looked at it) in Ezekiel years ago. But the more I dug into it, I saw that the popular theory did not carry that much scriptural support.

Was the homosexuality sufficient to destroy it? Perhaps. But it never got listed as such.

DO not take this to mean I condone a gay lifestyle. I do not at all.
I just object to using Sodom as the linchpin in any argument against it.
 
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JackRT

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The law school's regulation could only be useful after the fact. Anyone, heterosexual or homosexual, who wants to engage in sex will do so anyhow just being more careful about being caught. So it is next to useless as a preventable measure. However, if the misbehavior came out it would give the school the necessary excuse to expel the student and be able to say "Look how righteous we are by expelling this evil so-called Christian."
 
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Arcangl86

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It was not about hetero married sex. It banned hetero extramarital sex. That will affect about 10 times more people that a ban on gay sex.
But it allowed for hetero married sex. So you could marry if you wanted to have sex with your partner. But you could never have sex with your same gender partner even if you got legally married. That's why it's a legal issue.
 
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JackRT

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Thank you for dispelling the myth that Sodom was solely destroyed because of homosexuality.

The Genesis 18:20 passage also suggests that God is actually not omniscient.
 
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RestoreTheJoy

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Canada’s top court has ruled in favour of denying accreditation to a Christian law school that banned students from having gay sex.

Friday’s ruling against Trinity Western University in British Columbia (BC) was closely watched by both religious freedom and gay rights advocates.

The university made students promise not to have extra-marital or gay sex.

The Supreme Court found that protecting LGBT students from discrimination trumped religious freedom.
So the freely entered agreement is that one must live in accordance to his faith, with one part of that being to uphold biblical teaching in terms of fornication.

But that doesn't apply to same sex fornication?

Um, no.
 
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RestoreTheJoy

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I guess I'll never understand why some Christians obsess over what kind of sex gay couples have. That's just a little too creepy for me. It's none of my business what goes on behind the closed doors of another consenting adult's bedroom. The love life of other consenting adults is none of my concern.
That's not at all the point here. If you decide to attend a CHRISTIAN school, you cannot feign ignorance at being expected to uphold Christian moral values....i.e. you agree that you won't be fornicating there.

Gender irrespective.
 
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Kenny'sID

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Thank you for dispelling the myth that Sodom was solely destroyed because of homosexuality.

Oh I am not missing anything from that passage; except the statement that THIS ACTION is the reason we are destroying Sodom.

Yes what those men wanted to do was vile. But it was not just the sexual side of the matter.

They were not being hospitable to strangers, and they were seeking to violate Lot's protection over them. Those 2 issues tie into the Ezekiel passage. And it stands in sharp contrast to how Abraham received them only 24 hours earlier.

I know you want it to be ONLY about homosexuality, but it is not as simple as that. God takes inhospitality very seriously.


Thanks for reinforcing the point of of one of my recent posts.
 
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RestoreTheJoy

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Nobody has ever had to change their convicted opinion that race-mixing or gay marriage is wicked. They just don't get to prevent race-mixing or gay marriage.
Two unrelated topics. The first is not scripturally prohibited in any way (Moses was married to an Ethiopian woman). The second has always been anti-biblical.

You cannot equate these two, desperately as some try.
 
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essentialsaltes

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Two unrelated topics. The first is not scripturally prohibited in any way (Moses was married to an Ethiopian woman). The second has always been anti-biblical.

You cannot equate these two, desperately as some try.

Certainly I can. I'm not particularly interested in religious prohibitions. Religions say all sorts of crazy things. I'm interested in the law. As a matter of law, people of different races and orientations are treated equally. If an organization (such as a college) under the authority of that law tries to enact inequality, the issue gets addressed in a court of law. No one tried to convene a synod or something to change anybody's religion. Nobody cares.

(and for the record, many people have declared that race-mixing was prohibited by their gods.)
 
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Kenny'sID

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Was the homosexuality sufficient to destroy it? Perhaps. But it never got listed as such.

Hint, it was the only thing that was listed/mentioned there. ;)

2 Thessalonians 2:11 Therefore God sends them a strong delusion, so that they may believe what is false, 12 in order that all may be condemned who did not believe the truth but had pleasure in unrighteousness.
 
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RestoreTheJoy

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You said Sodom was destroyed due to homosexuality. But that is never actually stated in scripture. Here is what was told to Abraham:

Gen 18:20 And the Lord said, “The outcry of Sodom and Gomorrah is indeed great, and their sin is exceedingly grave. 21 I will go down now, and see if they have done entirely according to its outcry, which has come to Me; and if not, I will know.”

That chapter in Ezekiel is the only place that says what that "exceedingly grave" sin was.
This is not true, as scripture does tell us those cities/areas were indeed due to sexual immorality and perversion. The inhospitality was an outcome of the perversion.

Jude 1:7: In a similar way, Sodom and Gomorrah and the surrounding towns gave themselves up to sexual immorality and perversion. They serve as an example of those who suffer the punishment of eternal fire.
 
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Dave-W

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Hint, it was the only thing that was listed/mentioned there.
There where? In Genesis? In Ezekiel?

If homosexuality was why God destroyed Sodom, why did He list other sins and not that one in Ezekiel?
 
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Dave-W

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RestoreTheJoy

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Certainly I can. I'm not particularly interested in religious prohibitions. Religions say all sorts of crazy things. I'm interested in the law. As a matter of law, people of different races and orientations are treated equally. If an organization (such as a college) under the authority of that law tries to enact inequality, the issue gets addressed in a court of law. No one tried to convene a synod or something to change anybody's religion. Nobody cares.

(and for the record, many people have declared that race-mixing was prohibited by their gods.)
It doesn't matter if you are interested or not. Those making said arguments attempt vainly to try to equate the two, since the argument rests on the meaning of marriage, and you can't do that. Being (any skin color) is never prohibited scripturally - obviously. Only immoral actions are prohibited.

One is not the same as the other under scripture or under law. There is NO inequality if all students cannot fornicate. Or if marriage is defined biblically at a Christian college. This decision is whacked.
 
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RestoreTheJoy

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Actually I suspect it was the other way around. The perversion was an outcome of the rudeness and inhospitality.
Scripture is very clear on why they were destroyed.

In a similar way, Sodom and Gomorrah and the surrounding towns gave themselves up to sexual immorality and perversion. They serve as an example of those who suffer the punishment of eternal fire. Jude 1:7
 
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RestoreTheJoy

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Actually I suspect it was the other way around. The perversion was an outcome of the rudeness and inhospitality.

Which it took NT revelation to ADD to what GOD had already revealed in Ezekiel.

It adds to it, it does NOT replace it.
What? That makes no sense. ALL scripture is profitable for teaching, rebuke, etc. SO? Jesus clarified some things too, but that didn't mean that God didn't mean what He said in the OT, just because they didn't get it all the time.
 
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JackRT

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Hint, it was the only thing that was listed/mentioned there. ;)

2 Thessalonians 2:11 Therefore God sends them a strong delusion, so that they may believe what is false, 12 in order that all may be condemned who did not believe the truth but had pleasure in unrighteousness.

What kind of God would delude a person in order to condemn them? This turns God into a monster.
 
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Dave-W

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What? That makes no sense. ALL scripture is profitable for teaching, rebuke, etc. SO? Jesus clarified some things too, but that didn't mean that God didn't mean what He said in the OT, just because they didn't get it all the time.
And in the OT, God never said Sodom et al were destroyed for immorality. That was added in the NT.
 
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