What is the Gospel?

Wordkeeper

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No.
A remnant Yahweh saved for Himself,
and others later were /are/ grafted back in, as Yahweh's Word Says Clearly.
Israel exists, unlike Sodom and Gomorrah. However, Israel is unclean, cannot enter the camp, because no sacrifices can be performed without the Temple.

Romans 9:29
It is just as Isaiah predicted: "Unless the Lord of Hosts had left us descendants, we would have become like Sodom, we would have resembled Gomorrah."

The cutting off is temporary, they will be allowed back in, but it hasn't happened yet:

Romans 11
23And they also, if they do not continue in their unbelief, will be grafted in, for God is able to graft them in again. 24For if you were cut off from what is by nature a wild olive tree, and were grafted contrary to nature into a cultivated olive tree, how much more will these who are the natural branches be grafted into their own olive tree?

25For I do not want you, brethren, to be uninformed of this mystery—so that you will not be wise in your own estimation—that a partial hardening has happened to Israel until the fullness of the Gentiles has come in;

26and so all Israel will be saved; just as it is written,
“THE DELIVERER WILL COME FROM ZION,
HE WILL REMOVE UNGODLINESS FROM JACOB.”

27“THIS IS MY COVENANT WITH THEM,
WHEN I TAKE AWAY THEIR SINS.”
 
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justbyfaith

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Wrong. Impute is a forensic term. If the trial is declared a mistrial because the evidence was contaminated, the defendant is acquitted. So even though he is guilty, because of the prosecutors goof up, innocence is imputed to the defendant. IOW, he is guilty, but because of the incompetence of the prosecution, the criminal escapes. His innocence is legal fiction.

This only substantiates my definition of impute. Innocence is credited to the man's account, even though he is guilty. And this is exactly what transpires when we believe on Jesus Christ. Only the reason for innocence being imputed is not a mistrial. The reason is that someone stepped in and took the penalty in our place, who was perfectly righteous.

Repute is an accounting term. If a person possesses a hundred dollar bill, the Federal Reserve promises to pay the bearer one hundred crisp one dollar bills. The hundred dollar bill has got a good reputation in itself. If a person possesses a three dollar bill, no one, not even God, can rightfully pay him three one dollar bills. It doesn't have a reputation, a correct face value. If God imputes, lends a value to the three dollar bill, it won't be the value of the Federal Reserve. In other words, if God gives three one dollar bills to the bearer of the fictional bill, He has not carried out a legal transaction.

Actually, if God reputes value to a three dollar bill, and will give a man three one dollar bills in exchange for it, then that three dollar bill does indeed have the value of three one dollar bills, and it is a legal transaction, since God is the arbitrator of everything. What He says goes. If God says it has that value, then because He is the Lord, the Federal Reserve will also give it the same value. I'm not sure what this has to do with anything though. But I just thought I'd point that out.

Abraham's act was not imputed, a legal fiction. It was reputed, an accounting credit. It was really credited to him as an entry, in his righteousness account.

See Romans 4:5. Now unto him that worketh not but believeth on him that justifieth the ungodly, his faith is counted for (or imputed as) righteousness.

Now according to this scripture, it is an ungodly person who is justified, whose faith is counted as righteousness. Are you saying that an ungodly person is truly righteous? or is righteousness merely imputed to him? i.e. his faith is counted as righteousness!

Wrong. what the article says is that in Romans, Paul praises good works, teaches it is necessary for all believers, and judgment depends on persistence, attempts to be perfect, which will lead to grace, which is sufficient to have a part of Christ. In Galatians, Paul attacks the need to take up Works of the Law, to pass the requirements of conversion, to become Jews, which the Judaizers were wrongly teaching was necessary for believers to have a part of Christ.

I think you have missed the point of Romans. Romans 2 is superseded by Romans 3. Paul is reasoning things out in Romans 2, he comes to the proper conclusion in chapter 3. Romans 3:28 is in direct contradiction to Romans 2:13, but the reasoning in between shows you how Romans 3:28 is the logical conclusion of an acceptance of Romans 2:13 when you introduce the gospel of Christ into the equation; as Romans 2:13 is the truth of the matter apart from the gospel. Also the kjv of Romans 3:28 points out that it is indeed a conclusion that Paul has made.
 
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Wordkeeper

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This only substantiates my definition of impute. Innocence is credited to the man's account, even though he is guilty. And this is exactly what transpires when we believe on Jesus Christ. Only the reason for innocence being imputed is not a mistrial. The reason is that someone stepped in and took the penalty in our place, who was perfectly righteous.

It all boils down to whether Abrahamś act was really righteous or ungodly. If Abrahamś act of believing God was credited as righteous, then he did not need imputation, borrowing, from Godś righteousness.
Actually, if God reputes value to a three dollar bill, and will give a man three one dollar bills in exchange for it, then that three dollar bill does indeed have the value of three one dollar bills, and it is a legal transaction, since God is the arbitrator of everything. What He says goes. If God says it has that value, then He is the Lord, and the Federal Reserve will also give it the same value. I'm not sure what this has to do with anything though. But I just thought I'd point that out.

God has got jurisdiction in one sphere and the bank has jurisdiction in another. If God lends value to a fictional three dollar bill, then He has crossed a line.

See Romans 4:5. Now unto him that worketh not but believeth on him that justifieth the ungodly, his faith is counted for (or imputed as) righteousness.

Now according to this scripture, it is an ungodly person who is justified, whose faith is counted as righteousness. Are you saying that an ungodly person is truly righteous? or is righteousness merely imputed to him?

Romans 4 does not teach that an ungodly person, Abraham, has been lent righteousness by God. Romans 4 teaches that someone not under a godly covenant can be found righteous by God if he is loyal to God. Is God only the God of those who are circumcised?

Gentiles were once thought to be ungodly, without God, because God did not have a covenant, contract, with them.

Ephesians 2
11Therefore remember that formerly you, the Gentiles in the flesh, who are called “Uncircumcision” by the so-called “Circumcision,” which is performed in the flesh by human hands— 12remember that you were at that time separate from Christ, excluded from the commonwealth of Israel, and strangers to the covenants of promise, having no hope and without God in the world.
I think you have missed the point of Romans. Romans 2 is superseded by Romans 3. Paul is reasoning things out in Romans 2, he comes to the proper conclusion in chapter 3. Romans 3:28 is in direct contradiction to Romans 2:13, but the reasoning in between shows you how Romans 3:28 is the logical conclusion of an acceptance of Romans 2:13 when you introduce the gospel of Christ into the equation; as Romans 2:13 is the truth of the matter apart from the gospel. Also the kjv of Romans 3:28 points out that it is indeed a conclusion that Paul has made.

Please quote the verses in full and show how these actions occur.
 
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justbyfaith

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It all boils down to whether Abrahamś act was really righteous or ungodly. If Abrahamś act of believing God was credited as righteous, then he did not need imputation, borrowing, from Godś righteousness.;

Abraham's believing, technically, was not an act; it was rather his response to the word of God. A
man can respond either with faith or with unbelief. The same heat that melts the butter hardens the clay.

God has got jurisdiction in one sphere and the bank has jurisdiction in another. If God lends value to a fictional three dollar bill, then He has crossed a line.

I'm not sure why you want to argue this as it seems irrelevant to the topic; but no: if God attributes value to a three dollar bill then the Federal Reserve cannot help but follow suit; because God is the Lord and the arbitrator of all things.

Romans 4 does not teach that an ungodly person, Abraham, has been lent righteousness by God. Romans 4 teaches that someone not under a godly covenant can be found righteous by God if he is loyal to God. Is God only the God of those who are circumcised?

Gentiles were once thought to be ungodly, without God, because God did not have a covenant, contract, with them.

Ephesians 2
11Therefore remember that formerly you, the Gentiles in the flesh, who are called “Uncircumcision” by the so-called “Circumcision,” which is performed in the flesh by human hands— 12remember that you were at that time separate from Christ, excluded from the commonwealth of Israel, and strangers to the covenants of promise, having no hope and without God in the world.

I'm not sure how you think what you are saying applies. Romans 4:5 does indeed teach that God justifies an ungodly person and counts their faith as righteousness. Here, also, the word impute is not used, but the concept of imputation as we have defined it surely applies.

Please quote the verses in full and show how these actions occur.

You are going to have to do that on your own study time; because I am in the process of moving. Simply read from Romans 2:13 down to Romans 3:28 a few times until you understand the transition from one concept to the next. Ask, and it will be given you. Seek, and you will find. Knock, and it will be opened.

Jesus stands at the door and knocks (Revelation 3:20). He wants you to spend time with Him in His word. He will sup with you and you with Him if you open the door. His word is the bread of life, and sincere milk whereby you can grow, if so be that you have tasted that the Lord is gracious.
 
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justbyfaith

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To @Bible2+

The Old Covenant law no longer condemns the believer from the outside; and neither does the New Testament law condemn the faithful (Romans 6:14, Romans 7:3, Galatians 2:19, Romans 7:6, Galatians 5:18, Galatians 5:22-23, Ephesians 2:15-16, Colossians 2:14, Hebrews 7:18-19) but the law of God does govern the (true) believer from the inside (Hebrews 8:10, Hebrews 10:16, Jeremiah 31:33, Romans 8:4, Romans 8:7, James 1:22, Ezekiel 36:27; 1 John 5:3, 2 John 1:6, Romans 5:5 w/ Romans 13:8-10).
 
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Wordkeeper

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Abraham's believing, technically, was not an act; it was rather his response to the word of God. A
man can respond either with faith or with unbelief. The same heat that melts the butter hardens the clay.
An act is what people do. What did Abraham do? He believed. So it was an act.
I'm not sure why you want to argue this as it seems irrelevant to the topic; but no: if God attributes value to a three dollar bill then the Federal Reserve cannot help but follow suit; because God is the Lord and the arbitrator of all things.
If God gets involved with the transaction of illegal currency, then it is an illegal act. You can't escape that conclusion.

I'm not sure how you think what you are saying applies. Romans 4:5 does indeed teach that God justifies an ungodly person and counts their faith as righteousness. Here, also, the word impute is not used, but the concept of imputation as we have defined it surely applies.
The word "ungodly" is used to mean uncircumcised. I have proved that.

Besides, Erasmus made a mistake. Which the KJV repeats, perpetuates. You are handling erroneous material. Not admissable as evidence

You are going to have to do that on your own study time; because I am in the process of moving. Simply read from Romans 2:13 down to Romans 3:28 a few times until you understand the transition from one concept to the next. Ask, and it will be given you. Seek, and you will find. Knock, and it will be opened.

Jesus stands at the door and knocks (Revelation 3:20). He wants you to spend time with Him in His word. He will sup with you and you with Him if you open the door. His word is the bread of life, and sincere milk whereby you can grow, if so be that you have tasted that the Lord is gracious.
Sorry, if you are unable to present intelligible claims, then we have to treat them as not claims, they are null and void.
 
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justbyfaith

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An act is what people do. What did Abraham do? He believed. So it was an act.

If God gets involved with the transaction of illegal currency, then it is an illegal act. You can't escape that conclusion.


The word "ungodly" is used to mean uncircumcised. I have proved that.

Besides, Erasmus made a mistake. Which the KJV repeats, perpetuates. You are handling erroneous material. Not admissable as evidence


Sorry, if you are unable to present intelligible claims, then we have to treat them as not claims, they are null and void.
If I continue in this discussion with you, I fear we will simply go back and forth contradicting each other as we continue to strive. And the Bible tells me not to do that. So suffice it to say that I disagree with you; and I am going to leave it at that.
 
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Wordkeeper said in post #182:

Before he was circumcised, performed the Works of the Law to covenant with God, Abraham was loyal, faithful, to God.

Regarding "the Works of the Law", do you mean the Mosaic law?

If so, note that the Mosaic law was not instituted until some 600 years after the time of Abraham.

Also, Abraham was righteous before God solely by His faith in God, before Abraham had done any works whatsoever (Romans 4:2-5).

Wordkeeper said in post #182:

. . . salvation is from the Jews because the Messiah comes from Israel.

The Messiah/Christ saves only through the New Covenant (Hebrews 9:15), which is made only with Israel (Jeremiah 31:31-34).

Wordkeeper said in post #182:

There are no Christian Jews.

Of course there are (Acts 22:3).

Wordkeeper said in post #182:

Galatians 3
28 There is no longer Jew or Gentile, slave or free, male and female. For you are all one in Christ Jesus.

Galatians 3:28 There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: for ye are all one in Christ Jesus.

This cannot mean that there are no Christians who are Jews or Gentiles in any sense, for Christians remain either genetic Jews (Acts 22:3) or genetic Gentiles (Romans 16:4b). Similarly, Galatians 3:28 does not mean that there are no Christians who are males or females, for we are still males or females with regard to our genitals, and with regard to other matters (1 Timothy 2:11-12; 1 Corinthians 14:34-37; 1 Corinthians 11:4-16; 1 Peter 3:7a).

So Galatians 3:28 can only mean that there is no distinction between Jewish and Gentile Christians, or between male and female Christians, with regard to them being "one in Christ" (Galatians 3:28b), in the sense of them being one body in Jesus Christ (Ephesians 4:4-6), without distinction with regard to their salvation (Romans 10:12; 1 Corinthians 12:13; 1 Peter 3:7b).

Wordkeeper said in post #182:

Some branches were broken off means Jews were broken off.

No, it means only some (in the sense of not all) Jews were broken off.

For just as all Christians, whether Jews or Gentiles, are individual branches in the vine which is Jesus Christ (John 15:5), the only way to salvation (John 14:6, Acts 4:12), so all Christians, whether Jews or Gentiles, are individual branches in the good olive tree of Israel, the Jews' own tree (Romans 11:17,24, Jeremiah 11:16-17). For all Jewish Christians remain part of Israel (Romans 11:1) as the natural branches in the tree of Israel (Romans 11:24). And all Gentile Christians have been grafted as branches from a wild olive tree into the tree of Israel (Romans 11:17,24, Ephesians 2:12,19, Galatians 3:29), so that they can partake of the salvation of the New Covenant (Matthew 26:28; 1 Corinthians 11:25; 2 Corinthians 3:6, Hebrews 9:15), which God has made only with Israel (Jeremiah 31:31-34, John 4:22b). This does not mean that a wild branch becomes a natural branch, that a Gentile Christian becomes a genetic Jew, but means that Gentile Christians, even while remaining branches from a wild olive tree, even while remaining genetic Gentiles, are still grafted in to become part of the good olive tree of Israel (Romans 11:17,24).

All Christians, whether Jews or Gentiles, are spiritually Abraham's seed (Galatians 3:29). And Abraham's seed is Israel (Isaiah 41:8, Romans 11:1; 2 Chronicles 20:7). So the entire Church is Israel (Revelation 21:9,12; 1 Peter 2:9-10). Not just the Jews in the Church (Romans 11:1b), but also the Gentiles in the Church, are spiritually Abraham's seed of promise (Romans 9:7-8,24), as Isaac was (Galatians 4:28), and as Jesus Christ is (Galatians 3:16,29). So both Jewish and Gentile Christians are heirs of all of the promises made by God to Israel (Ephesians 3:6, Ephesians 2:12,19, Romans 15:27, Galatians 3:29b, Romans 11:17,24).

Wordkeeper said in post #182:

All Jews can’t keep the Covenant Passover, so all Israel is cut off.

Christian Jews can keep the New Covenant Passover (1 Corinthians 5:7-8), so all Israel is not cut off (1 Corinthians 12:13).

*******

Wordkeeper said in post #187:

Gentiles were once thought to be ungodly, without God, because God did not have a covenant, contract, with them.

Ephesians 2
11 Therefore remember that formerly you, the Gentiles in the flesh, who are called “Uncircumcision” by the so-called “Circumcision,” which is performed in the flesh by human hands— 12 remember that you were at that time separate from Christ, excluded from the commonwealth of Israel, and strangers to the covenants of promise, having no hope and without God in the world.

Ephesians 2:12,19 means that Gentile Christians are not strangers to Israel, but are fellowcitizens in Israel along with Jewish Christians. Read also what Ephesians 3:6 says.
 
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Bible2+

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justbyfaith said in post #191:

The Old Covenant law no longer condemns the believer from the outside; and neither does the New Testament law condemn the faithful (Romans 6:14, Romans 7:3, Galatians 2:19, Romans 7:6, Galatians 5:18, Galatians 5:22-23, Ephesians 2:15-16, Colossians 2:14, Hebrews 7:18-19) but the law of God does govern the (true) believer from the inside (Hebrews 8:10, Hebrews 10:16, Jeremiah 31:33, Romans 8:4, Romans 8:7, James 1:22, Ezekiel 36:27; 1 John 5:3, 2 John 1:6, Romans 5:5 w/ Romans 13:8-10).

Regarding "the law of God does govern the (true) believer from the inside", not the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law.

For the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law has been made obsolete by the New Covenant (Hebrews 8:13). For example, the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law required an Aaronic priesthood (Exodus 30:30), while the New Covenant replaced the Aaronic priesthood with the Melchisedechian priesthood (Hebrews 7:11-28). And the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law required animal sacrifices for sin (Leviticus 23:19), while the New Covenant replaced these with the one-time sacrifice of Jesus Christ Himself on the Cross (Hebrews 10).

The letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law is the Hagar to the New Covenant's Sarah (Galatians 4:21-25). So those people, whether Jews or Gentiles, who try to keep the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law are like Ishmael, Abraham's son by a bondmaid (Galatians 4:22), who was cast out (Galatians 4:30), while those people, whether Jews or Gentiles, who keep the New Covenant are like Isaac (Galatians 4:28), Abraham's son by a freewoman (Galatians 4:22,31), who became his heir (Galatians 4:30b).

The letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law, including the letter of its Ten Commandments, written and engraven in stones (2 Corinthians 3:7, Deuteronomy 4:13, Deuteronomy 27:8), was the ministration of death and condemnation (2 Corinthians 3:7,9). For example, see Leviticus 20:10, Exodus 31:14, and Numbers 15:32-36; and contrast these with the New Covenant's John 8:4-11 and Matthew 12:1-8.

The letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law has been completely and forever done away (2 Corinthians 3:11), abolished (2 Corinthians 3:13b). But it is still able to spiritually blind some people as with a veil from beholding Jesus Christ (2 Corinthians 3:14-16), while the New Covenant is the ministration of the Spirit and righteousness (2 Corinthians 3:6,8-9b), which remains (2 Corinthians 3:11b), and which permits Christians to remove the veil, and to behold Jesus (2 Corinthians 3:16-18, Mark 15:38, Hebrews 7:18-19, Ephesians 2:15-18, Colossians 2:14-17).

But a mistaken spirit of Pharisaism can still sometimes deceive even some Christians into thinking that they must keep the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law to be saved from hell (Acts 15:1,5), or to become perfect (Galatians 3:2 to 5:26). This is a false, cursed gospel (Galatians 1:6-9). For if any Christians are keeping any part of the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law thinking that they must do so to be saved from hell, or to become perfect, then Jesus Christ will profit them nothing. They have fallen from grace (Galatians 5:2-8).
 
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Wordkeeper

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If I continue in this discussion with you, I fear we will simply go back and forth contradicting each other as we continue to strive. And the Bible tells me not to do that. So suffice it to say that I disagree with you; and I am going to leave it at that.
2 Corinthians 10
3For though we walk in the flesh, we do not war according to the flesh,4for the weapons of our warfare are not of the flesh, but divinely powerful for the destruction of fortresses. 5We are destroying speculations and every lofty thing raised up against the knowledge of God, and we are taking every thought captive to the obedience of Christ
 
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Wordkeeper

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Regarding "the Works of the Law", do you mean the Mosaic law?

If so, note that the Mosaic law was not instituted until some 600 years after the time of Abraham.

Also, Abraham was righteous before God solely by His faith in God, before Abraham had done any works whatsoever (Romans 4:2-5).

God´s First Covenant with His Called out People, was with His Ekklesia

Genesis 17
7“I will establish My covenant between Me and you and your descendants after you throughout their generations for an everlasting covenant, to be God to you and to your descendants after you. 8“I will give to you and to your descendants after you, the land of your sojournings, all the land of Canaan, for an everlasting possession; and I will be their God.”

9God said further to Abraham, “Now as for you, you shall keep My covenant, you and your descendants after you throughout their generations. 10“This is My covenant, which you shall keep, between Me and you and your descendants after you: every male among you shall be circumcised.11“And you shall be circumcised in the flesh of your foreskin, and it shall be the sign of the covenant between Me and you. 12“And every male among you who is eight days old shall be circumcised throughout your generations, a servant who is born in the house or who is bought with money from any foreigner, who is not of your descendants. 13“A servant who is born in your house or who is bought with your money shall surely be circumcised; thus shall My covenant be in your flesh for an everlasting covenant. 14“But an uncircumcised male who is not circumcised in the flesh of his foreskin, that person shall be cut off from his people; he has broken My covenant.”

So before Abraham had followed any rule, performed any works, to enter a covenant, he was already considered a part of Godś people.

The Messiah/Christ saves only through the New Covenant (Hebrews 9:15), which is made only with Israel (Jeremiah 31:31-34).

God saved those who are loyal to him, without any covenant, or is God only the God of those who are covenanted?

Romans 4:9aIs this blessedness only for the circumcised, or also for the uncircumcised?

Of course there are (Acts 22:3).

Acts 22:3“I am a Jew, born in Tarsus of Cilicia, but brought up in this city. I studied under Gamaliel and was thoroughly trained in the law of our ancestors. I was just as zealous for God as any of you are today.

He said it to reveal his origin. A Jew who is unable to atone for his sin is cut off, is no longer part of Israel. If Israel has no observant Jews, it is desolate, not eligible for membership in God´s Ekklesia, Called Out Ones.

Galatians 3:28 There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: for ye are all one in Christ Jesus.

This cannot mean that there are no Christians who are Jews or Gentiles in any sense, for Christians remain either genetic Jews (Acts 22:3) or genetic Gentiles (Romans 16:4b). Similarly, Galatians 3:28 does not mean that there are no Christians who are males or females, for we are still males or females with regard to our genitals, and with regard to other matters (1 Timothy 2:11-12; 1 Corinthians 14:34-37; 1 Corinthians 11:4-16; 1 Peter 3:7a).

So Galatians 3:28 can only mean that there is no distinction between Jewish and Gentile Christians, or between male and female Christians, with regard to them being "one in Christ" (Galatians 3:28b), in the sense of them being one body in Jesus Christ (Ephesians 4:4-6), without distinction with regard to their salvation (Romans 10:12; 1 Corinthians 12:13; 1 Peter 3:7b).

You must tell me what are the distinctions with regard to salvation in Judaism between men and women, masters and slaves, compared to Christianity.

No, it means only some (in the sense of not all) Jews were broken off.
For just as all Christians, whether Jews or Gentiles, are individual branches in the vine which is Jesus Christ (John 15:5), the only way to salvation (John 14:6, Acts 4:12), so all Christians, whether Jews or Gentiles, are individual branches in the good olive tree of Israel, the Jews' own tree (Romans 11:17,24, Jeremiah 11:16-17).


Wrong. All who drink from the Rock are eligible for grafting into the Body of Christ conditional to being loyal, faith, belief.

For all Jewish Christians remain part of Israel (Romans 11:1) as the natural branches in the tree of Israel (Romans 11:24). And all Gentile Christians have been grafted as branches from a wild olive tree into the tree of Israel (Romans 11:17,24, Ephesians 2:12,19, Galatians 3:29), so that they can partake of the salvation of the New Covenant (Matthew 26:28; 1 Corinthians 11:25; 2 Corinthians 3:6, Hebrews 9:15), which God has made only with Israel (Jeremiah 31:31-34, John 4:22b).

Is God the God of the circumcised only?

This does not mean that a wild branch becomes a natural branch, that a Gentile Christian becomes a genetic Jew, but means that Gentile Christians, even while remaining branches from a wild olive tree, even while remaining genetic Gentiles, are still grafted in to become part of the good olive tree of Israel (Romans 11:17,24).

Faithful Gentiles have always been part of the Body of Christ, since Abraham, the Father of Faith, even when they were ungodly, without God, without a covenant. They were just sheep of a different fold.

All Christians, whether Jews or Gentiles, are spiritually Abraham's seed (Galatians 3:29). And Abraham's seed is Israel (Isaiah 41:8, Romans 11:1; 2 Chronicles 20:7). So the entire Church is Israel (Revelation 21:9,12; 1 Peter 2:9-10). Not just the Jews in the Church (Romans 11:1b), but also the Gentiles in the Church, are spiritually Abraham's seed of promise (Romans 9:7-8,24), as Isaac was (Galatians 4:28), and as Jesus Christ is (Galatians 3:16,29). So both Jewish and Gentile Christians are heirs of all of the promises made by God to Israel (Ephesians 3:6, Ephesians 2:12,19, Romans 15:27, Galatians 3:29b, Romans 11:17,24).

Wrong. That´s the mistake Jews make. Abraham´s seed is a singular entity and identified by faith, loyalty, obedience. Only Jesus qualifies.

Galatians 3:16Now the promises were spoken to Abraham and to his seed. He does not say, "And to seeds," as referring to many, but rather to one, "And to your seed," that is, Christ.

Christian Jews can keep the New Covenant Passover (1 Corinthians 5:7-8), so all Israel is not cut off (1 Corinthians 12:13).

Jews who are cut off from Israel are not Jews. They enter the Body of Christ as Gentiles.

Ephesians 2:12,19 means that Gentile Christians are not strangers to Israel, but are fellowcitizens in Israel along with Jewish Christians. Read also what Ephesians 3:6 says.

Wrong. Gentiles are now Godly, with a covenant, because God used Israel as a vessel of dishonor.

Romans 11:11I say then, they did not stumble so as to fall, did they? May it never be! But by their transgression salvation has come to the Gentiles, to make them jealous.

John 10
16"I have other sheep, which are not of this fold; I must bring them also, and they will hear My voice; and they will become one flock with one shepherd.[/QUOTE]
 
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justbyfaith

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2 Corinthians 10
3For though we walk in the flesh, we do not war according to the flesh,4for the weapons of our warfare are not of the flesh, but divinely powerful for the destruction of fortresses. 5We are destroying speculations and every lofty thing raised up against the knowledge of God, and we are taking every thought captive to the obedience of Christ
If that is an attempt to get me to argue with you further, it has failed. But I will heed the scripture that you have quoted and will continue to pray for you.
 
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justbyfaith

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To @Bible2+:

According to Hebrews 8:10, Hebrews 10:16, and Jeremiah 31:33, the Old Covenant law is written not only on the hearts of New Covenant believers, but in our minds.

Of course the ceremonial law has been completely abolished, as it is fulfilled in the Lamb of God who taketh away the sin of the world. (Not one jot or one tittle has been taken away however, as it points to the sacrifice of Christ and is useful for teaching on that subject).

However the moral law is very much alive in our hearts, and minds.

It is written in Proverbs that if anyone turns away his ear from hearing the law, even his prayer shall be an abomination.

The law is a schoolmaster to lead men to Christ. Therefore for those who have not believed in Christ, it is important to understand that its moral requirement is binding on them until they can receive forgiveness; and that once they receive forgiveness the moral virtues exemplified by the law are to be borne in them as the fruit of the Holy Spirit; so that there is no law that would condemn any of their behaviour (Galatians 5:22-23).
 
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Bible2+

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Wordkeeper said in post #198:

God saved those who are loyal to him, without any covenant, or is God only the God of those who are covenanted?

God now saves people from hell only through the Messiah's/the Christ's New Covenant (Hebrews 9:15), which is made only with Israel (Jeremiah 31:31-34). Gentile Christians are grafted into Israel (Romans 11:17).

Also, all obedient believers who died during Old Testament times are now part of the Church in heaven (Hebrews 11:13-16, Hebrews 12:22-24). For now there are no believers outside of the Church (Ephesians 4:4-6). And 1 Peter 4:6, 1 Peter 3:18c-19, and Ephesians 4:9 show that there was (decades before 70 AD) a post-resurrection descent of Jesus Christ into Hades to preach the fulfillment of the Gospel (of 1 Corinthians 15:1-4) to the souls of the dead in Hades, after which preaching, Jesus ascended into heaven with all of the souls of those in Hades who had died in faith (Ephesians 4:8-9, Hebrews 11:13-16, Hebrews 12:22-24).

Wordkeeper said in post #198:

Romans 4:9a Is this blessedness only for the circumcised, or also for the uncircumcised?

Whether or not someone is physically circumcised does not matter to Christians (Colossians 3:11, Galatians 6:15, Galatians 5:6). Instead, the only circumcision which matters is the spiritual circumcision (Philippians 3:3) of water-immersion (burial) baptism into Jesus Christ (Colossians 2:11-13).

If Christians, whether Jews or Gentiles, get physically circumcised thinking that they have to (Acts 15:1,5), because it was commanded to Abraham (Genesis 17:10), and was part of the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law (Leviticus 12:3), then Christ will profit them nothing (Galatians 5:2). They have fallen from grace (Galatians 5:4), and have placed themselves under the curse of the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law (Galatians 3:10, Deuteronomy 27:26).

Under the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law, physical circumcision was required for a male, whether Jew or Gentile, whether infant or adult, to become part of Israel (Exodus 12:48). But under the New Covenant, physical circumcision is not required for a Jew or Gentile to become part of Israel. All that is required is faith in Jesus Christ (Romans 11:17,24, Ephesians 2:12,19, Galatians 3:29). This is one of the ways in which the New Covenant is not according to the Old Covenant (Jeremiah 31:32). The letter of the entire Old Covenant Mosaic law was abolished on Jesus' Cross (Ephesians 2:15-16, Colossians 2:14-17, Romans 7:6).

Also, unlike the abolished physical circumcision of the Old Covenant Mosaic law, the spiritual circumcision of the New Covenant of Jesus Christ (Colossians 2:11-13, Philippians 3:3, Romans 2:29) makes no distinction between males and females (Galatians 3:28-29).

Also, under the New Covenant, a non-Christian, genetic Jew, even though he may be physically circumcised, is spiritually uncircumcised (Acts 7:51), and so spiritually is not a Jew (Romans 2:28-29, Revelation 2:9b, Revelation 3:9). He has been broken off in spirit from the good olive tree of Israel, the genetic Jews' own tree (Romans 11:20,24). Yet he will be grafted in again if he comes into faith in Jesus Christ (Romans 11:23-32), who is Himself a Jew (John 4:9,22, Luke 2:21).

Wordkeeper said in post #198:

Abraham´s seed is a singular entity and identified by faith, loyalty, obedience. Only Jesus qualifies.

And those who believe in Him (Galatians 3:29).

Wordkeeper said in post #198:

Jews who are cut off from Israel are not Jews. They enter the Body of Christ as Gentiles.

Christian Jews and Christian Gentiles enter the body of Christ as Jews and Gentiles (1 Corinthians 12:13).
 
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Bible2+

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justbyfaith said in post #200:

According to Hebrews 8:10, Hebrews 10:16, and Jeremiah 31:33, the Old Covenant law is written not only on the hearts of New Covenant believers, but in our minds.

Those verses refer not to the Old Covenant law, but to the New Covenant law (Hebrews 7:18-19).

Also, Jesus Christ shows in the Sermon on the Mount how His New Covenant, Christian commandments are stricter than the letter of the commandments of the Old Covenant Mosaic law. For the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law forbade murder (Matthew 5:21, Exodus 20:13), while Jesus' New Covenant law forbids even calling people names (Matthew 5:22). And the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law forbade adultery (Matthew 5:27, Exodus 20:14), while Jesus' New Covenant law forbids even looking at another woman with lust (Matthew 5:28). And the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law permitted divorce and remarriage (Matthew 5:31, Deuteronomy 24:1-2), while Jesus' New Covenant law forbids it (Matthew 5:32, Mark 10:11-12, Luke 16:18), except for a single exemption granted only to husbands who discover that their newlywed wife is not a virgin, but had committed fornication (Matthew 19:9).

Jesus Christ also shows in the Sermon on the Mount that while His New Covenant, Christian law is stricter than the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law, at the same time it is also more merciful. For the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law required taking an eye for an eye (Matthew 5:38, Deuteronomy 19:21), while Jesus' New Covenant law requires turning the other cheek (Matthew 5:39). And the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law required hatred for one's enemies (Matthew 5:43, Deuteronomy 23:6), while Jesus' New Covenant law requires love for one's enemies (Matthew 5:44). And the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law, the ministration of death (2 Corinthians 3:7), required, for example, that adulterers be put to death (Leviticus 20:10), while Jesus showed mercy to the woman caught in adultery (John 8:4-11). And, for another example, the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law required that anyone who does any work on the sabbath is to be put to death (Exodus 31:14, Numbers 15:32-36), while Jesus allowed His disciples to work on the sabbath, and said that they were guiltless (Matthew 12:1-8), just as Jesus Himself worked on the sabbath (John 5:17-18).

So in obeying Jesus Christ's New Covenant commandments (Matthew 5:19 to 7:29, John 14:15; 1 Corinthians 14:37), Christians, whether Jews or Gentiles, are both more merciful and loving, and also exceed in righteousness those who mistakenly try to keep the abolished letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law (Matthew 5:20-48, Ephesians 2:15-16, Colossians 2:14-17, Romans 7:6; 2 Corinthians 3:6-18, Hebrews 7:18-19).

justbyfaith said in post #200:

Not one jot or one tittle has been taken away . . .

Matthew 5:18 did not mean that heaven and earth had to pass away before the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law's commandments could be abolished, but that Jesus Christ had to fulfill the Old Testament prophecies regarding the Messiah's/the Christ's first coming (Luke 24:44-46; e.g. Acts 3:22-26, Isaiah 53) before He could abolish the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law's commandments (for both Jews and Gentiles, of all times) on the Cross (Ephesians 2:15-16, Colossians 2:14-17, Romans 7:6; 2 Corinthians 3:6-18, Hebrews 7:18-19).
 
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Danthemailman

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The gospel is the "good news" of the death, burial and resurrection of Christ (1 Corinthians 15:1-4) and is the power of God unto salvation to everyone that BELIEVES.. (Romans 1:16).

To “believe” the gospel is to trust in the death, burial and resurrection of Christ as the ALL-sufficient means of our salvation.
 
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LittleLambofJesus

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The Epistles are for people who already know the Gospel in established Christian communities, so if the Epistles are not the Gospel then what is the Gospel? Should Matthew, Mark, Luke and John be used exclusively to tell the Gospel to non-believers?

Perhaps you could say we have theological license to use what we want to or it could be said that doctrinally meaty messages are irresponsible for non-believers as they are not ready. This begs the question what is the purpose of the Gospel? Should it "fix" ones theology or should it be more focused on introducing someone to Jesus?
The word "Gospel" is mentioned in 74 verses of the NT, while only 12 verses in Gospels, so I would say the Epistles, which were after Christ explains the Gospel more fully, especially to both a Jewish and Gentile audience, per Paul

The primary word for "gospel" is #2098 which surprisingly is used in only 12 verses in the Gospels.
4 verses in Matt and 8 verses in Mar, none in Luke or John, 1 time in Revelation:

Matthew 24:14
“And this Gospel/good-news of the kingdom will be preached in all the world as a witness to all the nations, and then the end will come.

Mark 13:10
and to all the nations it behoveth first that the Gospel/good-news be proclaimed.

Last time used:

Revelation 14:6
And I saw another messenger flying in mid-heaven, having Gospel/good-news age-during to proclaim to those dwelling upon the earth, and to every nation, and tribe, and tongue, and people,

http://www.eliyah.com/lexicon.html

2098. euaggelion yoo-ang-ghel'-ee-on from the same as 2097; a good message, i.e. the gospel:--gospel.
Strong's Number G2098 matches the Greek εὐαγγέλιον (euaggelion),
which occurs 77 times in 74 verses

#1097 is used only 11 times in the Gospels. It appears to mean to evangelize or preach.
1 verse in Matt and 10 verses in Luke

2097. euaggelizo yoo-ang-ghel-id'-zo from 2095 and 32; to announce good news ("evangelize") especially the gospel:--declare, bring (declare, show) glad (good) tidings, preach (the gospel).
Strong's Number G2097 matches the Greek εὐαγγελίζω (euaggelizō),
which occurs 61 times in 52 verses

2099. euaggelistes yoo-ang-ghel-is-tace' from 2097; a preacher of the gospel:--evangelist.
 
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DamianWarS

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The word "Gospel" is mentioned in 74 verses of the NT, while only 12 verses in Gospels, so I would say the Epistles, which were after Christ explains the Gospel more fully, especially to both a Jewish and Gentile audience, per Paul

The primary word for "gospel" is #2098 which surprisingly is used in only 12 verses in the Gospels.
4 verses in Matt and 8 verses in Mar, none in Luke or John, 1 time in Revelation:

Matthew 24:14
“And this Gospel/good-news of the kingdom will be preached in all the world as a witness to all the nations, and then the end will come.

Mark 13:10
and to all the nations it behoveth first that the Gospel/good-news be proclaimed.

Last time used:

Revelation 14:6
And I saw another messenger flying in mid-heaven, having Gospel/good-news age-during to proclaim to those dwelling upon the earth, and to every nation, and tribe, and tongue, and people,

http://www.eliyah.com/lexicon.html

2098. euaggelion yoo-ang-ghel'-ee-on from the same as 2097; a good message, i.e. the gospel:--gospel.
Strong's Number G2098 matches the Greek εὐαγγέλιον (euaggelion),
which occurs 77 times in 74 verses

#1097 is used only 11 times in the Gospels. It appears to mean to evangelize or preach.
1 verse in Matt and 10 verses in Luke

2097. euaggelizo yoo-ang-ghel-id'-zo from 2095 and 32; to announce good news ("evangelize") especially the gospel:--declare, bring (declare, show) glad (good) tidings, preach (the gospel).
Strong's Number G2097 matches the Greek εὐαγγελίζω (euaggelizō),
which occurs 61 times in 52 verses

2099. euaggelistes yoo-ang-ghel-is-tace' from 2097; a preacher of the gospel:--evangelist.

you don't need to say the word "gospel" to speak or act the gospel. I certainly wouldn't accuse Jesus of not spreading the gospel simply because he failed to say the word "gospel"
 
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yeshuaslavejeff

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Go ahead and say out loud "THIS IS GOOD NEWS" ..... try it......

you don't need to say the word "gospel" to speak or act the gospel. I certainly wouldn't accuse Jesus of not spreading the gospel simply because he failed to say the word "gospel"
 
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DamianWarS

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Go ahead and say out loud "THIS IS GOOD NEWS" ..... try it......
It should be self-evident. Calling it good doesn't magically make it better news nor does the receiver take hold of it quicker, either it is good or it is not. Christians have this obsession toward sacred terms and it often estranges people from the gospel and it's because there is no such thing as sacred words.
 
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