Unlike most here, I started studying this subject in the early 70's because my wife had an abortion before we met. She was forced by her parents. She also had to go to Colorado because it wasn't legal in our state then.
First off, if you study the bible translations you see a real politicized shift in what the "infallible" word of God says based upon religious persuasions and indoctrinations over time. I was using the RSV translation at the time and here is what it says.
RSV EXO 21:22 "When men strive together, and hurt a woman with child, so that there is a miscarriage, and yet no harm follows, the one who hurt her shall be fined, according as the woman's husband shall lay upon him; and he shall pay as the judges determine.
I'm pretty sure that a "
miscarriage" isn't a '
pre mature birth' and yet translators in '1952' felt this "infallible"
word was just as valid as the modern '1978' Nearly Inspired Version translators feel a "
premature birth" makes sense.
NIV EXO 21:22 "If men who are fighting hit a pregnant woman and she gives birth prematurely but there is no serious injury, the offender must be fined whatever the woman's husband demands and the court allows.
Now that's just a pretty big difference to begin with IMO. I feel like the RSV did a better job of clearing up the vagueness of the KJV, but NIV just wrote indoctrinated opinion IMO.
I tend to agree that if the woman dies it's life for life. But if the woman lives and is hurt, or a miscarriage occurs then there is a fine to be paid. And even then the husband helps in deciding the price. I'm not sure what that's all about either.
But it certainly isn't as cut and dried IMO as most here believe.