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Are there credible witnesses to the resurrection?

doubtingmerle

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You have a real flair for quentin begging. They har 49 days until Pentecost, planta of time to go to Gallilee and Emmaus. You sant to sclod me for dumping in the middle of something but you cold find an historial context with a road map and a flashlight. Been reading the thread by the way and Im going to have some fun with that.
Uh huh, so you have the disciples go up to Galilee after Luke 24:49? But that would be after Jesus told them not to depart Jerusalem, according to Luke. Acts, in continuation of Luke tells us they obeyed the command and did not depart Jerusalem until after Pentecost.

So that is the question: Did the disciples go to Galilee after Luke 24:49, as Matthew clearly implies, or did they stay in Jerusalem, as Luke claims?

Had you actually read what we wrote before jumping in, you would have known what we were discussing.
 
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mark kennedy

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Uh huh, so you have the disciples go up to Galilee after Luke 24:49? But that would be after Jesus told them not to depart Jerusalem, according to Luke. Acts, in continuation of Luke tells us they obeyed the command and did not depart Jerusalem until after Pentecost.

No they didnt leave Jerusalem after the ascension until after Pentecost. What you dont seem to realuze is that there are 49 days from Passover to Pentecost. Matthew doesnt record the ascension, he spends most of his time foused on the seven days leading up to the resurrection. Luke's account was the result of detailed research, discussions with the wittnesses and its rich with details the other Gospel dont have. Thats why William Ramsey called Luke an historian of the highest order. We really dont know when or how Jesus told the to go to this mountain in Galilee but we do know it would have been before the ascension since it would be rather pointless after. Do you insert these self refuting absurdities on purpose or really that oblivious to the historial context.

So that is the question: Did the disciples go to Galilee after Luke 24:49, as Matthew clearly implies, or did they stay in Jerusalem, as Luke claims?

Your seriously pursuing this? They didnt go anywhere after the ascension but that was just a few days before Pentecost. Plenty of time previously for Peter to get tired of sitting around the Upper room and decide to go fishing. Im assuming the fishing wasnt so hot in Jerusalem, a couple of them went with him. Oh and btw there a theory that John Mark was the boy carrying water and the Upper Room was in his Moms house. Anyway...

Had you actually read what we wrote before jumping in, you would have known what we were discussing.

Oh I read it several times and even tried backtracking to see what on earth you thought you were talking about. Turns out you dont think 49 days is long enough to squeeze in a fishing trip seven miles way and meet Jesus on a mountain in Galaliee on a separate occasion.

As far as responding to your posts, for one thing your quotes lack citations and blend with your random remarks. You highlighted a supposed verse somewhere it doesnt go without much explanation at all. Then when I get to the bottom of it, its just another fundamental error and virtually self refuting one at that.

I honestly think if you understood what your getting yourself into you would have left it alone, just like the critics have for decades.
 
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doubtingmerle

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No they didnt leave Jerusalem after the ascension until after Pentecost. What you dont seem to realuze is that there are 49 days from Passover to Pentecost.es.
Huh? This has nothing to do with my point. Get with the program, please.

Luke clearly has Luke 24:49 occurring on Easter day. And when we combine that with Acts 1 which says they kept the command of Luke 24:49 and stayed in Jerusalem, where in Luke 24 do they go to Galilee? Please show me where the gap is in Luke 24 that the disciples could have gone up to Galilee, and where they could have come back.
 
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Ed1wolf

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Ed1wolf said:
It is in the ancient hymn, plus two independent sources. The gospels and Josephus.

dm: Can I remind you that you have never attempted to show a bit evidence that I Cor 15:6-8 was an ancient hymn. You just assume it. 663 posts into this you repeat the same assumption, and make zero attempts to actually prove it.

Unbelievable.
Many scholars both liberal and conservative believe that it is. Read them. For example, Reginald Fuller, Norman Perrin, John Dominic Crossan, Gary Habermas. Michael Licona, among others.

dm: Back to James. I asked you where James wrote that he thought Jesus rose from the dead. You respond with the garbage above. No, you have no evidence that James wrote "the hymn". You have no evidence that James wrote the gospels or Josephus.

I never claimed that James wrote the hymn or the gospels or Josephus, where did you get that idea? The hymn just records what he told his fellow believers why he became a follower of Christ when he was initially a skeptic. He saw his brother alive not long after he had seen him murdered on the cross. So they wrote the ancient hymn/creed and put his testimony in it.

dm: Once again, sigh, what book did James write to say that he believes that Jesus rose from the dead?
See above.

ed: Yes, but the overwhelming majority believe he [Muhammed] did exist and his bio contains some actual history.

dm; Oh crud, now you are arguing for the historicity of Muhammed? There are a wide range of opinions there. I don't see how any of that is going to help your case.

No, it is very relevant because the documentary evidence for Christ is much stronger than the documentary evidence for Muhammad and practically no scholar denies that his bio does not contain much actual history. Therefore, the gospels probably contain even more actual history than Muhammad's bio.
 
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mark kennedy

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Huh? This has nothing to do with my point. Get with the program, please.

Luke clearly has Luke 24:49 occurring on Easter day. And when we combine that with Acts 1 which says they kept the command of Luke 24:49 and stayed in Jerusalem, where in Luke 24 do they go to Galilee? Please show me where the gap is in Luke 24 that the disciples could have gone up to Galilee, and where they could have come back.

Alright you are missing a pretty obvious problem with your scenario. The Feast of Weeks occurs seven weeks and one day following Passover, thus the Greek term Pentecost, meaning “the 50th (day),” following the historical account in Exodus 19:1-3 of Israel’s arrival at Sinai fifty days after the Passover. (Seedbed, Feasts of the Old Testament). Luke sums this 50 day period in a chapter, Starting with the resurrection that was three days after Passover and ending at Bethany just before Pentecost. Matthew sums it up in three verses. Matthew dedicates 6 chapters to seven days from the Triumphant Entry ch. 21 to the trial, crucifixion and burial of Christ ch. 27. The following fifty days are of little concern in comparison. Luke covers the same week from ch. 19 thru ch. 23, spends the bulk of ch. 24 talking about the first two days after Jesus is raised and then sums up the rest by quoting Jesus' words at Bethany just before the ascension, that's your gap. Mark sums up Passion week in ch. 15. John spends a good deal more time on the last three days, starting with the Triumph entry in ch. 12 then jumps to the Upper Room Discourse that goes on for three chapters which was Passover ch. 13-19, one chapter on the Resurrection and a single chapter, to include their little fishing trip (John 21:1-14) and an expanded version of the discussion between Jesus and Peter none of the other writers mention.

In all four accounts the fifty days from Passover to Pentecost is dwarfed by the extensive discussion of Passion Week. You are obviously not following the context here. They weren't told to wait in Jerusalem until the ascension at Bethany. According to Luke Jesus appeared to them over the space of 40 days so they probably spent the last ten days or so in the Upper Room and apparently were joined by the 120 ministers Jesus had commissioned previously:

Later as they were eating, Jesus appeared to the eleven and rebuked them for their unbelief and hardness of heart, because they did not believe those who had seen Him after He had risen. (Mark 16:14)

It was the first day of the week, and that very evening, while the disciples were together with the doors locked for fear of the Jews, Jesus came and stood among them. "Peace be with you!" He said to them. (John 20:19)

Again Jesus said to them, "Peace be with you. As the Father has sent Me, so also I am sending you." (John 20:21)

Eight days later, His disciples were once again inside with the doors locked, and Thomas was with them. Jesus came and stood among them and said, "Peace be with you." (John 20:26)

After His suffering, He presented Himself to them with many convincing proofs that He was alive. He appeared to them over a span of forty days and spoke about the kingdom of God. (Acts 1:3)

In those days Peter stood up among the believers, a group numbering about a hundred and twenty. (Acts 1:15)
The writer gets to tell the story in his own way, it's left to us to piece it together.

Grace and peace,
Mark
 
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doubtingmerle

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Alright you are missing a pretty obvious problem with your scenario. The Feast of Weeks occurs seven weeks and one day following Passover, thus the Greek term Pentecost, meaning “the 50th (day),” following the historical account in Exodus 19:1-3 of Israel’s arrival at Sinai fifty days after the Passover. (Seedbed, Feasts of the Old Testament). Luke sums this 50 day period in a chapter, Starting with the resurrection that was three days after Passover and ending at Bethany just before Pentecost. Matthew sums it up in three verses. Matthew dedicates 6 chapters to seven days from the Triumphant Entry ch. 21 to the trial, crucifixion and burial of Christ ch. 27. The following fifty days are of little concern in comparison. Luke covers the same week from ch. 19 thru ch. 23, spends the bulk of ch. 24 talking about the first two days after Jesus is raised and then sums up the rest by quoting Jesus' words at Bethany just before the ascension, that's your gap. Mark sums up Passion week in ch. 15. John spends a good deal more time on the last three days, starting with the Triumph entry in ch. 12 then jumps to the Upper Room Discourse that goes on for three chapters which was Passover ch. 13-19, one chapter on the Resurrection and a single chapter, to include their little fishing trip (John 21:1-14) and an expanded version of the discussion between Jesus and Peter none of the other writers mention.

In all four accounts the fifty days from Passover to Pentecost is dwarfed by the extensive discussion of Passion Week. You are obviously not following the context here. They weren't told to wait in Jerusalem until the ascension at Bethany. According to Luke Jesus appeared to them over the space of 40 days so they probably spent the last ten days or so in the Upper Room and apparently were joined by the 120 ministers Jesus had commissioned previously:

Later as they were eating, Jesus appeared to the eleven and rebuked them for their unbelief and hardness of heart, because they did not believe those who had seen Him after He had risen. (Mark 16:14)

It was the first day of the week, and that very evening, while the disciples were together with the doors locked for fear of the Jews, Jesus came and stood among them. "Peace be with you!" He said to them. (John 20:19)

Again Jesus said to them, "Peace be with you. As the Father has sent Me, so also I am sending you." (John 20:21)

Eight days later, His disciples were once again inside with the doors locked, and Thomas was with them. Jesus came and stood among them and said, "Peace be with you." (John 20:26)

After His suffering, He presented Himself to them with many convincing proofs that He was alive. He appeared to them over a span of forty days and spoke about the kingdom of God. (Acts 1:3)

In those days Peter stood up among the believers, a group numbering about a hundred and twenty. (Acts 1:15)
The writer gets to tell the story in his own way, it's left to us to piece it together.

Grace and peace,
Mark
Still aren't seeing the problem? Let's try another perspective. Matthew 28:16-20 describes a trip to Galilee after the resurrection.

Then the eleven disciples went away into Galilee, into a mountain where Jesus had appointed them.
And when they saw him, they worshipped him: but some doubted.
And Jesus came and spake unto them, saying, All power is given unto me in heaven and in earth.
Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost:
Teaching them to observe all things whatsoever I have commanded you: and, lo, I am with you alway, even unto the end of the world. Amen.​

Now how can you possibly fit that into Luke 24:1-49? Luke presents a contiguous story from early Easter morning to the verse that tells them they must stay in Jerusalem until Pentecost (and Acts confirms they indeed stayed in Jerusalem after that command). Then where does this passage of Matthew fit in with Luke?

Ed1Wolf had a suggestion to get the disciples to Galilee, but you and I both agreed that his insertion was not consistent with the plain reading of Luke.

So here is your assignment. Find me a place in Luke 24 or Acts 1 where the disciples could have made the trip to Galilee as described in Matthew. If you cannot find such a place, than Luke and Matthew contradict.
 
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doubtingmerle

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Many scholars both liberal and conservative believe that it is. Read them. For example, Reginald Fuller, Norman Perrin, John Dominic Crossan, Gary Habermas. Michael Licona, among others.
What about my response to this? Are you just going to ignore my response and make me repeat the claim forever? Are you going to hold your hands over your eyes and pretend nobody ever responded to this? Where does any of this get us?
I never claimed that James wrote the hymn or the gospels or Josephus, where did you get that idea?
Because I asked you what book James wrote where he said these things, and this was your response. It seems you now agree that you were not responding to my question. If I ask you a quesiton, and you do not want to respond, then it will be more clear if you tell us you wish not to respond, rather than pretend to respond.
The hymn just records what he told his fellow believers why he became a follower of Christ when he was initially a skeptic. He saw his brother alive not long after he had seen him murdered on the cross. So they wrote the ancient hymn/creed and put his testimony in it.
Suppose somebody tells you a tribe in Africa sings
Ogzo was poisoned and died for our sins!
Ogzo was buried and rose again a year later!
Bani and Ceislo and Boonycans and Seisly saw him!​

That is your evidence. You never see any of these people and never confirm who wrote the song. Can you see how this is not sufficient evidence to worship Ogzo?

No, it is very relevant because the documentary evidence for Christ is much stronger than the documentary evidence for Muhammad and practically no scholar denies that his bio does not contain much actual history. Therefore, the gospels probably contain even more actual history than Muhammad's bio.
Most scholars believe both the story of Jesus and Muhammad have some truth. But some scholars say both the story of Jesus and Muhammad are fiction. But as I told you many times, that was a topic of another thread.

This thread is not about whether the gospels had a core of history, but about whether there is good evidence that Jesus bodily rose from the dead.

I repeat: This thread is not about whether the gospels had a core of history, but about whether there is good evidence that Jesus bodily rose from the dead.

I know you love, love, love repetition. How many times would you like me to repeat the above paragraph? Let me know, I will copy it that many times, and then we can move on.
 
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mark kennedy

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Still aren't seeing the problem? Let's try another perspective. Matthew 28:16-20 describes a trip to Galilee after the resurrection.

Then the eleven disciples went away into Galilee, into a mountain where Jesus had appointed them.
And when they saw him, they worshipped him: but some doubted.
And Jesus came and spake unto them, saying, All power is given unto me in heaven and in earth.
Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost:
Teaching them to observe all things whatsoever I have commanded you: and, lo, I am with you alway, even unto the end of the world. Amen.​

Now how can you possibly fit that into Luke 24:1-49? Luke presents a contiguous story from early Easter morning to the verse that tells them they must stay in Jerusalem until Pentecost (and Acts confirms they indeed stayed in Jerusalem after that command). Then where does this passage of Matthew fit in with Luke?

Ed1Wolf had a suggestion to get the disciples to Galilee, but you and I both agreed that his insertion was not consistent with the plain reading of Luke.

So here is your assignment. Find me a place in Luke 24 or Acts 1 where the disciples could have made the trip to Galilee as described in Matthew. If you cannot find such a place, than Luke and Matthew contradict.
They had fifty days and your trying to say they were confined to Jerusalem from day two. Luke is summing up the initial appearance and the final promise of the Holy Spirit at Pentecost. Acts 1 even says there were multiple proofs over forty days. Your torturing the context here, there is more then enough time to go on that fishing trip and visit that mountain in Galilee.

These were required feasts, they could have went home and returned for Pentecost. They are told to tarry in Jerusalem, not camp out and stay in the city the entire time. Apparently they were told this more then once, the final time at Bethany just before the ascension. You either want me to think the were told not to leave Jerusalem day two, or seriously don't understand they had fifty days. Either way the argument is bogus.

Jesus did many other things as well. If every one of them were written down, I suppose that even the whole world would not have room for the books that would be written. (John 21:25)
Your trying to squeeze everything into a couple of days when the text is clear this happened over the space of 40 to 50 days. More then enough time. They were told to 'tarry' in Jerusalem, that's not mutually exclusive with a trip to Galilee.

I understand the problem and its nothing an honest exposition cant fix.

This thread is not about whether the gospels had a core of history, but about whether there is good evidence that Jesus bodily rose from the dead. I repeat: This thread is not about whether the gospels had a core of history, but about whether there is good evidence that Jesus bodily rose from the dead.

The Gospels are evidence of the resurrection, confirmed by Paul in his testimony and by his conversion.

The genuineness of these writings really admits of as little doubt, and is susceptible of as ready proof, as that of any ancient writings whatever. The rule of municipal law on this subject is familiar, and applies with equal force to all ancient writings, whether documentary or otherwise; and as it comes first in order, in the prosecution of these inquiries, it may, for the sake of mere convenience, be designated as our first rule.

Every document, apparently ancient, coming from the proper repository or custody, and bearing on its face no evident marks of forger, the law presumes to be genuine, and devolves on the opposing party the burden of proving it to be otherwise.

An ancient document, offered in evidence in our courts, is said to come from the proper repository, when it is found in the place where, and under the care of persons with whom, such writings might naturally and reasonably be expected to be found; for it is this custody which gives authenticity to documents found within it. If they come from such a place, and bear no evident marks of forgery, the law presumes that they are genuine, and they are permitted to be read in evidence, unless the opposing party is able successfully to impeach them. The burden of showing them to be false and unworthy of credit, is devolved on the party who makes that objection. The presumption of law is the judgment of charity. It presumes every man is innocent until he is proved guilty; that everything has been done fairly and legally, until it is proved to have been otherwise; and that every document, found in its proper repository, and not bearing marks of forgery, is genuine. (Simon Greenleaf, Testimony of the Evangelists)​

I know you love, love, love repetition. How many times would you like me to repeat the above paragraph? Let me know, I will copy it that many times, and then we can move on.

I have revisited this thread with fresh source material and sound expositions the entire time I've participated, can't say as much for you. You get detailed specifics and sound expositions only to repeat the original, erroneous apparent contradiction, after it has been reconciled to the overall context and related accounts. Your the one who likes to repeat yourself, in circles, endlessly. Your even bragging about it.

Have a nice day :)
Mark
 
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Quid est Veritas?

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It seems to me that Paul taught the physical body dies and decays in the ground while a spiritual body lives on.


It seems to other people that Paul thought the physical body needed to be changed into a new body.


Who really knows?

The former doesn't fit first century ideas nor Paul's heritage; The latter is supported by Church Heritage and does fit. I think the answer not so difficult.


We agree!


The question is not whether Paul thought Christ arose in a new body. The question is whether that risen body was made of physical matter, and whether Paul thought the body in the grave had to disappear in order for that risen body to come out.

Please provide evidence that any first century group held the conception of a 'spiritual body' in this manner, for this sounds like later dualistic ideas and does not fit the first century as far as I am aware.

I know you came into this thread late, but do you care to comment on the actual questions of this thread?

Thought I had done so. Pray tell what questions are you referring to that I failed to address?

Uh, they thought God was a spirit that could be everywhere at once.

An anachronism, as I explained earlier.

Which leads us back to the driving question of this thread. Did Paul think the risen Jesus could be many places at once (and thus in many people's hearts) or is his risen Jesus was confined to some sort of body that could never be in everybody's heart, even if they ask him to be there. Care to actually address the question?

I did answer this question. I spoke of the Ruach and Nephesh remember? The animating principle and the so-called 'breath of life'? Paul envisioned a resurrected Christ and a Christ-in-us as part and parcell, like his Jewish heritage taught him from descriptions of the working of God in the OT.


Your reductio ad adsudam of this straw man instead of addressing my rational question is noted.

This statement makes no sense. I made no reductio.


Please actually deal with the topic of this thread that you came into late, without making us repeat the entire thread every time somebody tags off to a new tag team partner.

I have been, thank you very much. I fail to see why you think you can ignore valid points by pretending they are off-topic, when you yourself continueously seem to introduce irrelevancies to the question posed in the OP.


OK, if Paul thought the Pharisees were wrong, he was not afraid to say so.


Then why do you insist that he could not possible disagree with the Pharisees on the nature of the resurrection, when he differs with them on so many other things?

'The Pharisees' was not a monolithic block of dogma.

Paul agreed with the traditionalists on almost everything, but suddenly you would insist THIS innovation? An idea not even prevalent in the first century? It is really not very credible to think thus.


If we go only by Paul's books, he did not continue to call himself a Pharisee. The only place he mentions it in his books is Philippians 3:2-8, where he says he is no longer identifying himself that way.

Because we ignore ancilliary evidence on Paul when it is inconvenient to us?


Uh, no Paul is pretty clear that he talking specifically of his religious background here:


Beware of dogs, beware of evil workers, beware of the concision.

For we are the circumcision, which worship God in the spirit, and rejoice in Christ Jesus, and have no confidence in the flesh.

Though I might also have confidence in the flesh. If any other man thinketh that he hath whereof he might trust in the flesh, I more:

of

the tribe of Benjamin, an Hebrew of the Hebrews; as touching the law, a Pharisee;

but loss for the excellency of the knowledge of Christ Jesus my Lord: for whom I have suffered the loss of all things, and do count them but dung, that I may win Christ, [Philippians 3:2-8]

Read that last part again. He is saying nothing is the equal of Christ, nothing as important. He is not disavowing his whole heritage as you seem to imply. In fact his list reeks of pride, going so far as to identify himself of the tribe of Benjamin.

Paul was living far from Jerusalem, interspersed with people of many cultures. He could have easily picked up other ideas.

Paul's audience was primarily gentiles. All of them would have been open to gentile ideas.

The Amish of Lancaster County have a religion very distinct from "The English". But there is a town of Intercourse, Pennsylvania, where the Amish regularly interact with the English at various shops. It has been noted that the Amish who live in Intercourse (the town) are more like the English than those who do not live in Intercourse. Deeply religious people adopt other views when interacting with people of other religions
As I explained earlier, Paul being of the diaspora is irrelevant. There were High Priests in Jerusalem with Greek names; there were sages of the Pharisees in the diaspora. The Talmud itself stems partially from Babylonia. Hellenistai speaking Greek as their first language were living in Judaea. It is silly to think Paul more likely to imbibe foreign ideas in the diaspora while Jerusalem itself had been under pervasive Greek influence for centuries, in fact this tension between traditionalists and Hellenistai was the precipitating cause of the Hasmonaean Civil War that brought Rome into Jewish affairs. We see similar Jewish groups accross the board as Philo and Josephus can attest (with the exception of the Essenes who seem to cluster by themselves).

The Amish are again an obfuscation to the thread and are completely inapplicable, as first century Jews would ALL be the equivalent of those living in Intercourse. Paul being from the diaspora has no bearing here as we often see traditionalist circle the wagons in such cases as well, like the rest of the Amish or Ultra-Orthodox Jews.

The Pharisee leaders would never say they were drinking the blood of God in a ceremonial meal. The Pharisee leaders would never accept Jesus as the Messiah. The Pharisees would never say circumcision is not important.

Paul sometimes differed with the Pharisees.
Relevance? His theology is still very much rooted in Jewish thought and quotes Jewish scripture. To suddenly assume he completely threw this out the window, what he had been studying and living his whole life, beggars belief. Extraordinary claims require extraordinary evidence and there simply is none here to support the contention that he negated his Pharisaic heritage. He extends the circumcision to the heart (actually a Pharisaic idea), he partakes in the sacrifice of God in the form of His blood (akin to the Rabbinical understanding of Passover as making Israel and God one flesh) and many Pharisees obviously accepted Jesus as the Messiah - arguably Phariseeism is the 2nd Temple Jewish School most akin to Christianity and Paul himself is an example of a leading Pharisee doing so.

Others have found a strong Greek influence in Paul's writings, but we digress.
Citation? Besides it is no digression, but the centrepoint of your whole argument why you would exclude Paul as an early source on the Resurrection.

Uh, the Torah says nothing about eternal conscious existence in heaven or hell. Later writings hint at it, but the idea grows.
Paul was a Pharisee. They believed in the Written and the Oral Torah. Pharisees strongly supported resurrection of the dead in some form. You are confusing them with Sadducees here.

Even a Pharisee like Josephus is said to believe in a two-body view of the resurrection, in which one body is planted, and a different body comes up. If Josephus could believe this, why not Paul
Excuse me? Citation? I am very well versed in the works of Flavius Josephus, from whence is this statement derived?

I don't see remarkable agreement on the resurrection.The original Mark doesn't say anything about it other than to say the women saw a man who said he was risen. Later gospels add contradictory details. They do not agree on which women came, on what time they came, on how many people saw Jesus where, on whether the disciples went to Galilee or not.
Mark says He was risen. Thus it is mentioned, as does the other gospels. Thus there is agreement, all say he was Risen. If you find a common kernel in multiple accounts, this tends to be in the original - as per my examples of the Alexander Romances. That circumstantial events differ a bit has no bearing on that all agree on the singular event around which the narrative is built.

And from what we can tell, the church of the first two centuries was indeed completely fractured on many things
Must I explain about Vegetarians being suspected Nazis again? That they disagreed on other things does not call in question the central tenet of the Risen Christ. Even the later docetic heresies maintain this in a form.

Mark 13:24-31 is central to the text of Mark 13. It seems to be the whole point, to get to that promise. There he prophesies that the disciples themselves would see certain things that never happened. Therefore Mark was not a reliable prophet. Therefore, it is not likely that he knew about thefall of Jerusalem before 60 AD.
As I said, Irrelevant to a discussion on whether Mark claims a resurrection or not and merely further shows that its credibility depends on the ideas each holds a priori. Restating an argument I already adressed does not suddenly make it more valid.

Forum rules say we can address the post, but not attack the poster. Please do not make up and attack a bias of your opponents. Please address the arguments
I was adressing the post and did not make any personal attack in any way, shape or form. I was pointing out the requirement of specific thought paradigms to be in place for anything you said to be valid. This is at best confusion on your part or at worst obfuscation as you ignore a legitimate point.

You were the one that brought up the many martyrs as evidence for the resurrection. I am glad that you now agree that the fact that somebody is willing to die for their faith isnot proof that the faith is true.
You misconstrue. The evidence is Faith, not martyrdom per se. Without the Resurrection there is no Christianity, as Paul himself says. The fact that a belief therein existed is thus supported by Christian Faith, especcially taking into account that your intimations of alternate 'forms' of resurrection are groundless historically.

No, the belief in a risen Christ does not imply belief that the grave was empty and that the living corpse interacted with people. Paul could have believed the two body view, that one body dies and decays and another comes up.

Again the question is whether Paul had the two body view or one body view of resurrection. You are assuming the very point in question.

All you can do is claim that since Paul agrees with you, therefore he must be implying what you think he implies, and since he must be implying what you think he implies, therefore he agrees with you. That is reasoning in a circle
Well actually, I can claim centuries of Church tradition that interpreted it thus and it fitting the first century mileau. You however need to invent doctrines which are extremely anachronistic and thrust them centuries back and ignore the fact that the Church descended from Paul disagrees with your supposition. I think it is clear here who has the strongest case.

We have no credible or explicit record of what happened within the Christian movement between 64 and 95 ce (or possibly even as late as 110 ce). [Richard Carrier, The Historical Jesus, Kindle Edition, location 5003
Carrier is a proponent of a extreme minority view of a mythic Christ, which has been completely discarded by the vast majority of historians as completely unsound. I meant a citation from a reliable historian, not the lunatic fringe. Carrier is to first century history as Young Earth Creation is to Biology. If you would use such dubious sources, you will have to show your work, as his conclusions are not widely accepted nor his hypotheses seen as legitimate by his Academic peers.

I have changed my beliefs in the opposite direction, from Christianity to Agnostic. I would be willing to change back if the evidence showed I was wrong. Would you be willing to change back if the evidence showed you were wrong
I sincerely doubt you would, for I have seen a stubborn tenacity to ignore evidence presented to you. I understand though, it is human nature to always think yourself perfectly reasonable.

Regardless, my conversion was hard fought and took years. I constructed vast battlelines with trenches and nomanslands and every inch of territory was fiercely contested. The losing side put up a stubborn resistance, fighting tooth and nail, leaving devastation in its wake. This churned earth then allowed Jesus to sow and hopefully one day reap a bountiful harvest. I was utterly transformed in the process. If such excellent evidence came to light, the process would likely need to be repeated, so would be a difficult slog but not impossible if the evidence is truly so compelling. Religion if done right is not worn lightly. The problem is that it is difficult to pretend someone doesn't exist once you have personally met them.
 
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doubtingmerle

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They had fifty days and your trying to say they were confined to Jerusalem from day two.
It is not me that is saying that, it is Luke. Again, Luk 24:49 says, "And, behold, I send the promise of my Father upon you: but tarry ye in the city of Jerusalem, until ye be endued with power from on high."

And Acts makes it clear they stayed there.

Your torturing the context here, there is more then enough time to go on that fishing trip and visit that mountain in Galilee.
But you apparently have them go to Galilee after that command to stay in Jerusalem. That was a long trip in those day. Today we can travel thousands of miles in the time it took them to make the trip.

These were required feasts, they could have went home and returned for Pentecost. They are told to tarry in Jerusalem, not camp out and stay in the city the entire time.
That is like telling somebody to stay in New York for the next two months and he says he took a fishing trip to Wisconsin. If he traveled that far, then he did not stay in the city as commanded.
Apparently they were told this more then once, the final time at Bethany just before the ascension. You either want me to think the were told not to leave Jerusalem day two, or seriously don't understand they had fifty days. Either way the argument is bogus.
Actually the command in Luke 24:49 has to be on Easter Sunday, unless you find a place to put a long break in the continuous narrative of Luke 24:1-49 for the disciples to get to Galilee and back. I have asked you where you could insert a break in Luke 24 between v1 and v49 for the disciples to get to Galilee and back before the command to stay. You have not responded to that request. I think that is because you haven't found a place for that to happen.
 
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doubtingmerle

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Ed1Wolf,

No, his atoms or mirror atoms still exist. See my post about matter and antimatter. God can recreate bodies with either the same atoms or mirror atoms that may have always existed.
Huh? Once again: I had told you that the body of Paul does not exist. And yet you say, "No", when I tell you the body of Paul does not exist! Huh?

Then you change the subject. You say the atoms of Paul's body exist. That was not my point. Of course the atoms exist. Now what about my point--the body of Paul no longer exists.

The fact that the atoms of Paul still exist is not the same as his body existing. If you shred a car into a billion pieces, that car no longer exists.

You say a body of antimatter could exist. Uh, huh, but then you would lose because that would be a variation of what I am talking about. I am saying that Paul could have meant that the body decays, and a second body comes out of it. You say, no, maybe the body decays and a second body (of antimatter) comes out of it. Same thing! Have you come over to my side?

You say God may make a new body for Paul. Again, if that is so, you lose. I contend Paul may be saying that the first body decays, and the person lives on in a second body. You say no, the first body decays, and the second person lives on in a (recreated) second body. Same thing! Have you come over to my side?

No, the key characteristic of a book is what it contains, ie the story. The story is the same. So it may be with our resurrected bodies. The key characteristics will remain the same just our "packaging" will be changed.
Yes. Yes. Yes.

That is what Paul seems to be saying. The outer man, the flesh, dies. The inner man, the spirit, lives on. Or in your analogy, the book is destroyed, but the story lives on in a new printing. Paul says in the resurrection it is the same inner person, different packaging. You say Paul says it is the same inner person, different packaging. Same thing! Have you come over to my side?
Well then you are committing the Genetic Fallacy.
No sir, I have not committed the Genetic Fallacy. I was merely echoing back what you said. You are the one that keeps on saying you are right because you have authorities. My standard response is to say I too have authorities, and move on to the argument they make. That is not the Genetic Fallacy.

I provided examples of books that produced harmonizations of the gospels prior to 180 AD in a previous post which shows that they plainly were talking about the gospels to point that they were already harmonizing them. Thereby seriously calling into question your statements.
Of course. This in no way refutes my claim that we have little discussion of the gospels before 140 AD, and major discussion of them after 180 AD. Of course there was a gradual buildup of interest in the gospels in the interim.
No, you are claiming that your fabricated spirit bodies are not physical, I am claiming that the resurrected body IS physical. Just made with transformed matter.
I am claiming that Paul did not think the resurrected body was made of physical matter as it appears on earth (what we call molecular matter). You are claiming that Paul did not think the resurrected body was made of physical matter as it appears on earth (what we call molecular matter). Same thing! Have you come over to my side?

Maybe, but Paul's writings plainly teach that his resurrected body will be physical, ie material.
The only evidence you have presented for that is your argument from analogy (which I consider bogus) which you will no doubt write back again to say it is not bogus.

Whatever. Again, the point is, I see nothing in Paul's teaching that says the body cannot decay in the grave, with the person living forever in a different body.

After all that is what you believe about Paul. You believe his body has decayed in the grave, and God will make him a different replica body later on. All I am saying is that Paul may have thought Jesus experienced the same thing you think Paul will experience.

Fraid not, the DNA of the seed is the same as the plant it produces. This is botany 101.
No, that is flat out wrong. As I said before the outer body of the seed has the DNA of the mother, and the embryo has a different DNA. See Seed - Wikipedia . (There, I turned to your favorite source, wikipedia. It agrees with me.)
Of course not, Paul's spirit/personality remains the same when it is reunited with his transformed resurrected body.
Right Paul dies. His body decays and is no more. Paul's spirit survives and will live on in a new body, or so Paul thought.

Perhaps Paul thought the same thing about Jesus.
 
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anonymous person

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Gentlemen, I think we should allow doubtingmerle the chance to tell us what his thoughts are regarding the nature of historiography so that we can attempt to establish a common ground on which to build.

Now doubtingmerle, the four of us i.e. Mark, Quid, Ed and myself believe that it is possible to derive knowledge of past events from reading historical accounts which purport to record said events. In other words, the four of us are historical realists.

Do you also think knowledge about the past can be derived from historical accounts? In other words, are you a historical realist too?
 
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Ed1wolf

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ed: Mark did not know about the Fall, otherwise he would have confirmed that Jesus had prophesied it in order to prove His status as a great prophet.

dm: Huh?

Let me illustrate. Daniel is commonly believed to have written long after the events he "prophesies". Daniel 11 is a fairly accurate history disguised as prophecy. But Daniel never does a victory lap and proclaims how all these things actually happened. That would ruin the whole point of the story, to make it look like it was written before the events.

No, there is evidence that Daniel was written prior to the events it relates and Chapt. 11 is to relate Daniels prophecy and that is it. Mark's purpose is totally different. He is writing a short bio of the Son of God, so he wants to demonstrate that Jesus is who He claims to be so Mark would have written that Jesus' prophecy came true if it was written after the event to provide strong evidence that Jesus was the Great Prophet that Moses had predicted and that His prophecy came true confirming that He is the Son of God.


dm: Likewise Mark is emphasizing the "prophecy" as though it was written before the event. He had no need for a victory lap. That would ruin the whole tone of this being a prophecy.

And as all his audience was well aware of the fall, Mark had no need to remind them.

And you ignore the point, that thought Mark was so accurate in describing the fall of Jerusalem in Mark 13, he fails in predicting events that he said would happen soon after the fall. That is strong evidence, that Mark wrote after 70 AD. And you ignore it.

No, see above. I am not sure what parts you are referring to as wrong, but not everything in Mark 13 is about the Fall of Jerusalem, parts of it are about the Second Coming.

ed: I never said I could PROVE it, but many scholars including non-Christian ones, agree that it was probably composed within that time or even earlier due to its ancient semitic characteristics.

dm: What Semitic characteristics?
What Semitic characteristics?
What Semitic characteristics?

I have asked you this over and over. You refuse to answer. That is because you have no evidence for Semitic characteristics of "the creed". You just repeat it over and over, and hope nobody catches that you never attempted to answer this.

Two of them are the reference to "The Twelve" and Cephas. For the rest you will have to read the scholars I mentioned in my earlier post. Who are all well respected and on both sides of the aisle.

ed: And 500 people cannot all have the same hallucination at the same time, this has been proven by science.

dm: Sigh. You have not proven that an ancient hymn mentions 500 seeing at the same time. Even if you prove this, not every thing in a hymn is true.

That is what it says and many well respected scholars agree that it is an ancient Christian Creed/Hymn written less than 5 years after the event. Read the scholars I referenced in my earlier post.


dm: Many sing a song about grandma being run over by a reindeer. Since you insist that every thing people were singing in a hymn has to be true, does that mean that grandma got run over by a reindeer?
There were people alive that could prove that the hymn/creed was wrong if it was not true, and yet there is no evidence of that. Nobody claims that Christmas song actually happened and if they did, it could be proven wrong or true by the people that were there.

ed: Since it was composed so early, most people that had seen the crucifixion were still alive, so they could have easily disproven it, but there is no record that they did.

dm: How do you know the gospels were widely known in the first century? How do you know that people did not shrug it off as silly talk without taking the time to disprove it? How do you know that somebody did not disprove it and his work was not saved?

See my post about the harmonizations that were written early in the 2nd century, that would be unlikely if they had not been widely known about in the first. Also, in this particular statement I was not referring to the gospels, I was referring to the ancient creed/hymn which predates the gospels by 20 years.

ed: And we know as I explained earlier from Justin Martyr that the jews were still claiming that the tomb was empty because the disciples stole the body.

dm: Justin does not say they were still saying that the disciple stole the body. He uses it as a literary device in a dialog to state an opposing view. He does not say that view was prevalent in early times. He needs an opposing view in his Dialog with Trypho, and he comes up with this one, probably from something he read in a book.

The fact that he uses the story, that the gospels report it, and jewish writings like the Talmud report it is evidence that it WAS prevalent in early times.

ed: No, because there actually have been people that claimed to have seen Elvis alive, but the key difference is that none of those people actually knew him. But with Jesus the people that claimed to have seen Him alive were family members and friends that actually knew Him. In that case it DOES become pretty credible evidence.

dm: I had a friend who claimed that he saw his grandfather standing at the top of the stairs in full military uniform one week after his grandfather died. I questioned him, and he insists it was actually his grandfather that he saw, and it was not just his imagination. Since he knew his grandfather well, does this prove his grandfather rose from the dead? Should I worship his grandfather?

No, not just with one person making the report, but if he had multiple family members and friends see him including two skeptics who get radically changed by seeing him, then it might reach the level of Christ's resurrection. And if he had evidence that the resurrection was physical then maybe I would believe him.

ed: No, Jesus and the disciples taught that you should only accept things that HAVE evidence.

dm: And that my friend, is why I doubt the resurrection.
Well you are entitled to your opinion but the evidence shows that you are wrong about Paul's belief as I have shown. Paul did not doubt that Jesus was PHYSICALLY resurrected.
 
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mark kennedy

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It is not me that is saying that, it is Luke. Again, Luk 24:49 says, "And, behold, I send the promise of my Father upon you: but tarry ye in the city of Jerusalem, until ye be endued with power from on high."

And Acts makes it clear they stayed there.

Of course they did but that doesn't forbid a trip to Galilee. Jesus had promised before that he would meet with them in Galilee (Matthew 26:32), perhaps the site of the 500 witnesses mentioned by Paul (1 Corinthians 15:6). That doesn't mean they didn't make the trip to Galilee, it means they didn't go home or in the case of Peter they didn't go back to their old jobs. To tarry is not to command them to not leave the city or the Upper Room but to stay located centrally in Jerusalem. It's a more general term then your trying to make it out to be. The gap you keep pressing for is between vs. 49 and vs. 50, they didn't go up to Bethany until some 40 to 50 days after the resurrection.

But you apparently have them go to Galilee after that command to stay in Jerusalem. That was a long trip in those day. Today we can travel thousands of miles in the time it took them to make the trip.

We don't even know where the mountain was, but one thing is for sure, all Jews made the trip to Jerusalem three times a year.

“Three times a year you are to celebrate a festival to me. “Celebrate the Festival of Unleavened Bread; for seven days eat bread made without yeast, as I commanded you. Do this at the appointed time in the month of Aviv, for in that month you came out of Egypt. “No one is to appear before me empty-handed. “Celebrate the Festival of Harvest with the firstfruits of the crops you sow in your field. “Celebrate the Festival of Ingathering at the end of the year, when you gather in your crops from the field. “Three times a year all the men are to appear before the Sovereign Lord. (Exodus 23:14-17)
Every year Jews were required to attend these feasts from a lot farther away the Galilee:

Utterly amazed, they asked: “Aren’t all these who are speaking Galileans? Then how is it that each of us hears them in our native language? Parthians, Medes and Elamites; residents of Mesopotamia, Judea and Cappadocia, Pontus and Asia, Phrygia and Pamphylia, Egypt and the parts of Libya near Cyrene; visitors from Rome (both Jews and converts to Judaism); Cretans and Arabs. (Acts 2:7=11)​

All the way from Rome and Egypt, kind of puts a trip to Galilee in perspective when you think about it.

That is like telling somebody to stay in New York for the next two months and he says he took a fishing trip to Wisconsin. If he traveled that far, then he did not stay in the city as commanded.

To tarry does not mean to not leave no matter what, your assigning meanings unknown to the historical and literary context. They didn't leave for ten days after Bethany but they were expressly told to go to a mountain somewhere in Galilee. There was plenty of time for that and Jesus appearing to the Galileans after the resurrection in their own territory makes perfect sense.

Actually the command in Luke 24:49 has to be on Easter Sunday, unless you find a place to put a long break in the continuous narrative of Luke 24:1-49 for the disciples to get to Galilee and back. I have asked you where you could insert a break in Luke 24 between v1 and v49 for the disciples to get to Galilee and back before the command to stay. You have not responded to that request. I think that is because you haven't found a place for that to happen.

I have told you repeatedly what happened and the gap, if you insist on calling it that, is between vs. 49 and vs. 50. They did 'tarry' in Jerusalem but that was because they didn't go home. Jesus told them to tarry in Jerusalem after Peter acted like he was going back to fishing instead of waiting around Jerusalem until Pentecost. Sure it was a pretty long trip but traveling like this would have been second nature to them, Jesus came all the way from Nazareth every year and Jews came from all points on the compass. Nothing extraordinary about this, in fact, they had done a lot of this.

Grace and peace,
Mark
 
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mark kennedy

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Regardless, my conversion was hard fought and took years. I constructed vast battlelines with trenches and nomanslands and every inch of territory was fiercely contested. The losing side put up a stubborn resistance, fighting tooth and nail, leaving devastation in its wake. This churned earth then allowed Jesus to sow and hopefully one day reap a bountiful harvest. I was utterly transformed in the process. If such excellent evidence came to light, the process would likely need to be repeated, so would be a difficult slog but not impossible if the evidence is truly so compelling. Religion if done right is not worn lightly. The problem is that it is difficult to pretend someone doesn't exist once you have personally met them.

I wanted to respond to this because my experience was very different. I didn't have a problem with evidence per se, that would come later. My issue was repentance and it just looked like a tall order to me. Holy God and wretched me was my problem but then God met me in prayer and it was my first lesson on grace. I struggled with the deity of Christ and the incarnation I don't know how long. The resurrection and the conversion of Paul wasn't really all that bad, although the nature of some of the other miracles had me puzzled a bit. When I got through all that, evidencial apologetics was little more then an intellectual exercise.

I said all that to tell you this, I know what you mean about a personal encounter. I thought I was doomed to a life of guilt and misery till I realized that faith was trusting God to meet you where you are and to make you what he wants you to be.

BTW, my compliments on a well written post, I always enjoy that kind of personal insight and incisive reasoning. I've tried to tell him, his version of the Pauline doctrine of the resurrection was unknown to the first century Church, except in an heretical tradition. Only the Gnostics taught that and the first century church condemned them outright as heretics. I have to wonder if Carrier ever took into consideration that the Gnostics were a mystery religion uniformly rejected by the early church, because to my knowledge he never addresses it.

Grace and peace,
Mark
 
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doubtingmerle

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What we know about he early church comes basically from epistles written from about 40 to 60 AD. These epistles say nothing explicitly about anybody seeing an empty grave, or about anybody interacting with a former corpse walking on earth. They do speak of a resurrection, but since they do not refer to these specific things, the resurrection of which they speak could easily be a spiritual resurrection in which the body remained in the ground. Later writings, such as the gospels, add in those features, but they are not there in the earliest record. When somebody back reads those ideas into the epistles, he is asserting something that is not there.

Please provide evidence that any first century group held the conception of a 'spiritual body' in this manner, for this sounds like later dualistic ideas and does not fit the first century as far as I am aware.
Sure. In The Interpreter's Dictionary of the Bible the entry on Resurrection says:

The view expressed in the [Dead Sea] Scrolls accord in general with those attributed by Josephus (Antiq. XVIII.i.5; War II.viii.11) to the Essenes, with whom, indeed, the Qumran sectaries may be identical...They held that although bodies were perishable, souls endured and mounted upward, the good to the realm of bliss, the evil to be consigned to a place of torment. This view is expressed also in Wisd. Sol. 3:1ff.; 5:16; Jub. 25; while something of the same kind--though without the reference to ultimate judgment--appears in Eccl. 12:7 ('the dust returns to the earth as it was, and the spirit returns to God who gave it'). The latter statement, it may be added, reproduces to a nicety the Iranian doctrine in the funeral inscription of Antiochus I of Commagene [ruled 69-36 BC in Commagene, a territory at the nape of Turkey and Syria], to the effect that the body will rest in the tomb 'through immeasurable time,' after the soul, 'beloved of God, has been sent to the heavenly throne of Zeus Oromasdes'. [Gaster, The Interpreters Dictionary of the Bible, as cited by Carrier, here.]​

Paul envisioned a resurrected Christ and a Christ-in-us as part and parcell, like his Jewish heritage taught him from descriptions of the working of God in the OT.
...or he could have envisioned a different resurrection like other first century Jews (see above) or like his Gentile acquaintances.
'The Pharisees' was not a monolithic block of dogma.
Exactly. So some Pharisees (such as Paul) might have adopted a two body view of the resurrection. They were not monolithic, after all.
Paul agreed with the traditionalists on almost everything, but suddenly you would insist THIS innovation?
Uh no, I mentioned several things that Paul differed with the Pharisees on. Why do you pretend it is only this point I mention?
Because we ignore ancilliary evidence on Paul when it is inconvenient to us?
No sir, I don't give the book of Acts much weight, because the evidence shows it was written later and is not reliable.

In particular, it has been observed that the speeches in Acts sound much alike, and appear to be saying the same thing as the writer of the book. Hence, "Luke" is probably not recording what they actually said, but what he wants them to say, or what he thinks they would have said in that situation. So when I see "Luke" say that Paul said something, that does not have near as much weight to me as what Paul actually wrote. And, if we go by what Paul wrote, he was not a dogmatic Pharisee.

And even Acts, in chapter 15, makes it clear Paul strongly disputed with Pharisee Christians.
Read that last part again. He is saying nothing is the equal of Christ, nothing as important. He is not disavowing his whole heritage as you seem to imply. In fact his list reeks of pride, going so far as to identify himself of the tribe of Benjamin.
Read the first verses again. Paul is specifically referring to his Pharisee background.

At any rate, Philippians 3 is the only place where Paul writes of his Pharisee background, and it certainly is not a ringing endorsement that whatever the Pharisee leaders believe, then that is what Paul believes. But for some reason, some people here choose to say that was Paul's attitude on some points (but only when the argument is convenient for them).
As I explained earlier, Paul being of the diaspora is irrelevant. There were High Priests in Jerusalem with Greek names; there were sages of the Pharisees in the diaspora. The Talmud itself stems partially from Babylonia. Hellenistai speaking Greek as their first language were living in Judaea. It is silly to think Paul more likely to imbibe foreign ideas in the diaspora while Jerusalem itself had been under pervasive Greek influence for centuries, in fact this tension between traditionalists and Hellenistai was the precipitating cause of the Hasmonaean Civil War that brought Rome into Jewish affairs. We see similar Jewish groups accross the board as Philo and Josephus can attest (with the exception of the Essenes who seem to cluster by themselves).
I disagree. The fact that Paul walked in Gentile circles is relevant to the question of whether he may have had some Gentile leaning views.
The Amish are again an obfuscation to the thread and are completely inapplicable, as first century Jews would ALL be the equivalent of those living in Intercourse.
Ah, so all first century Jews would be like the Amish in Intercourse, exposed to Gentile ideas. Interesting. And as the Amish in Intercourse are affected by that exposure, perhaps some Jews were too.
Relevance? His theology is still very much rooted in Jewish thought and quotes Jewish scripture. To suddenly assume he completely threw this out the window, what he had been studying and living his whole life, beggars belief. Extraordinary claims require extraordinary evidence and there simply is none here to support the contention that he negated his Pharisaic heritage. He extends the circumcision to the heart (actually a Pharisaic idea), he partakes in the sacrifice of God in the form of His blood (akin to the Rabbinical understanding of Passover as making Israel and God one flesh) and many Pharisees obviously accepted Jesus as the Messiah - arguably Phariseeism is the 2nd Temple Jewish School most akin to Christianity and Paul himself is an example of a leading Pharisee doing so.

Citation? Besides it is no digression, but the centrepoint of your whole argument why you would exclude Paul as an early source on the Resurrection.
The influence of the Gentiles on Paul's thought is well known. Richard Carrier has a substantial outline of the evidence in the Historical Jesus, including this footnote:

46. Popular philosophy’s influence on Paul: Stephen Finlan, The Apostle Paul and the Pauline Tradition (Collegeville, MN: Liturgical Press, 2008), pp. 26-28; and Troels Engberg-Pedersen, Cosmology and Self in the Apostle Paul: The Material Spirit (Oxford: Oxford University Press, 2010), along with the debate between Engberg-Pedersen, John Levison and John Barclay in the Journal for the Study of the New Testament 33 (2011), pp. 406-43, which collectively only confirms the influence of pagan philosophies, debating only to what extent Paul modified their ideas by combining them with Jewish ones (to create something new and different, the very definition of syncretism). 47. Francis Gerald Downing, Cynics and Christian Origins (Edinburgh: T. & T. Clark, 1992); and Francis Gerald Downing, Cynics, Paul and the Pauline Churches (London: Routledge, 1998); and L.E. Vaage, ‘Jewish Scripture, Q and the Historical Jesus: A Cynic Way with the Word?’, in The Sayings Source Q and the Historical Jesus (ed. A. Lindemann; Leuven: University Press, 2001), pp. 479-95; all in light of, e.g., Strauss, Four Portraits, One Jesus, pp. 366-68; and William Arnal, The Symbolic Jesus: Historical Scholarship, Judaism and the Construction of Contemporary Identity (London: Equinox, 2005), pp. 17-25 (who makes the quite correct point that being influenced by Cynicism does not make someone a Cynic, much less non-Jewish, and therefore most criticisms of the Cynic-influence hypothesis are based on fallacious black-and-white thinking that has no place in serious scholarship); see also William Arnal, Jesus and the Village Scribes: Galilean Conflicts and the Setting of Q (Minneapolis, MN: Fortress Press, 2001), pp. 52-59 (whose criticism is not against there having been Cynic influence, but against certain implausible theories that have been built on this premise). On Cynicism in general: William Desmond, Cynics (Berkeley, CA: University of California Press, 2008); and William Desmond, The Greek Praise of Poverty: Origins of Ancient Cynicism (Notre Dame, IN: University of Notre Dame Press, 2006). On what ‘Cynic influence’ looked like in other movements, useful for finding and understanding the same influence within Christianity and Judaism: James Francis, Subversive Virtue: Asceticism and Authority in the Second-Century Pagan World (University Park, PA: Pennsylvania State University Press, 1995)​

Paul was a Pharisee. They believed in the Written and the Oral Torah. Pharisees strongly supported resurrection of the dead in some form. You are confusing them with Sadducees here.
Huh? I told you that the Torah says nothing substantial about Heaven or Hell, but that later Jewish writers show openness to the idea. You say that I am confused, because later Jewish writers show openness to the idea.

Wait, what?

The first part of my claim still stands. The Torah does not address Heaven or Hell in any significant way. You insist that Paul would not deviate from the Torah. If so, then Paul has no need for either Heaven or Hell.
Excuse me? Citation? I am very well versed in the works of Flavius Josephus, from whence is this statement derived?
For Josephus's views on the resurrection see Gaster, op. cit.
Mark says He was risen. Thus it is mentioned, as does the other gospels. Thus there is agreement, all say he was Risen. If you find a common kernel in multiple accounts, this tends to be in the original - as per my examples of the Alexander Romances. That circumstantial events differ a bit has no bearing on that all agree on the singular event around which the narrative is built.
No, Mark 16:1-8 does not say he was risen. It says an unindentified man at the grave claimed this. Later gospels say he was risen.

Carrier is a proponent of a extreme minority view of a mythic Christ, which has been completely discarded by the vast majority of historians as completely unsound. I meant a citation from a reliable historian, not the lunatic fringe. Carrier is to first century history as Young Earth Creation is to Biology. If you would use such dubious sources, you will have to show your work, as his conclusions are not widely accepted nor his hypotheses seen as legitimate by his Academic peers.
Wow, where do I begin.

First you are "poisoning the well". You are saying because a writer made a mistake, you won't trust him on anything.

Second, all ideas begin small. Copernicus was in the minority when he suggested the earth orbited the sun. Carrier has written an extremely well documented book to make his point. The fact that many (biased) people have not yet accepted it does not make him wrong.

And third, getting back to the subject, if you think there is a substantial Christian record of the church between 64 AD and 95 AD, show me where. I have given you my source backing my claim.
 
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What we know about he early church comes basically from epistles written from about 40 to 60 AD. These epistles say nothing explicitly about anybody seeing an empty grave, or about anybody interacting with a former corpse walking on earth. They do speak of a resurrection, but since they do not refer to these specific things, the resurrection of which they speak could easily be a spiritual resurrection in which the body remained in the ground. Later writings, such as the gospels, add in those features, but they are not there in the earliest record. When somebody back reads those ideas into the epistles, he is asserting something that is not there.
As I have repeatedly explained, you are backreading a spiritual resurrection into the texts. First century Jews would not have understood it in this manner.

Sure. In The Interpreter's Dictionary of the Bible the entry on Resurrection says:

The view expressed in the [Dead Sea] Scrolls accord in general with those attributed by Josephus (Antiq. XVIII.i.5; War II.viii.11) to the Essenes, with whom, indeed, the Qumran sectaries may be identical...They held that although bodies were perishable, souls endured and mounted upward, the good to the realm of bliss, the evil to be consigned to a place of torment. This view is expressed also in Wisd. Sol. 3:1ff.; 5:16; Jub. 25; while something of the same kind--though without the reference to ultimate judgment--appears in Eccl. 12:7 ('the dust returns to the earth as it was, and the spirit returns to God who gave it'). The latter statement, it may be added, reproduces to a nicety the Iranian doctrine in the funeral inscription of Antiochus I of Commagene [ruled 69-36 BC in Commagene, a territory at the nape of Turkey and Syria], to the effect that the body will rest in the tomb 'through immeasurable time,' after the soul, 'beloved of God, has been sent to the heavenly throne of Zeus Oromasdes'. [Gaster, The Interpreters Dictionary of the Bible, as cited by Carrier, here.]​
Um, you are very much confused. If anything this supports my contention. It says bodies are perishable, which we all agree, but it does not say a purely 'spiritual' body ascended. Ecclesiastes 12:7 that is here referenced uses Ruach, or 'Breath' which never in any of its OT references ever records a being that can exist separate from its body. Similarly Josephus's references to Essene beliefs are not applicable to Paul, a Pharisee, nor does it follow that they held a purely Spiritual conception in the English meaning of those terms. For Josephus records it similar to the Greeks, who held a physical location - the Isles of the Blessed or Hades - to which the Shades went and if a hero ventured there, he found it very much material, only for it to disappear or become vacuous on his return. You are confusing modern conceptions with first century ones, without basis, as the idea of a physical realm consisting of a material, even if Aeon or Fire or Ether or what have you, was very much expected by all, not the 'separate dimension'-type conceptions we today associate with the spiritual.
In like vein, Commagene ideas that loan from the Fravashi of Zoroastrianism also imply a material being.
But this is expected if you came to this information through the distorted lens of Carrier.

...or he could have envisioned a different resurrection like other first century Jews (see above) or like his Gentile acquaintances.
To repeat, Paul was a Pharisee, not an Essene. Essenes kept to themselves and did not share their doctrines with outsiders. They were closed off communities. Paul's Epistles anyway share very little in common with what we know of the Essenes, so this is a stretch.
Please see above on Paul's Gentile acquantances' beliefs and why this still remains inapplicable.

Exactly. So some Pharisees (such as Paul) might have adopted a two body view of the resurrection. They were not monolithic, after all.
No evidence Paul or any other Pharisee ever did, so it is a bit silly to argue from lacunae on your part. It was part of the way that the various Schools of Second Temple Judaism were differentiated, so probably if you held such an idea you were not a Pharisee.

Uh no, I mentioned several things that Paul differed with the Pharisees on. Why do you pretend it is only this point I mention?
Because I explained how the others you mentioned are clearly derived from Pharisaic teaching and rests on a unsupportable assumption that Pharisees that adopted Christianity immediately cease to consider themselves Pharisees. As I said, Pharisaic teaching is most akin to Christianity of all schools of Second Temple Judaism.

No sir, I don't give the book of Acts much weight, because the evidence shows it was written later and is not reliable.

In particular, it has been observed that the speeches in Acts sound much alike, and appear to be saying the same thing as the writer of the book. Hence, "Luke" is probably not recording what they actually said, but what he wants them to say, or what he thinks they would have said in that situation. So when I see "Luke" say that Paul said something, that does not have near as much weight to me as what Paul actually wrote. And, if we go by what Paul wrote, he was not a dogmatic Pharisee.

And even Acts, in chapter 15, makes it clear Paul strongly disputed with Pharisee Christians.
Acts was written in the Greek historic style, like all works of history then. It was expected to invent speeches for protagonists, not necessarily exactly what they said, but the gist thereof. It falls well within the historiographic tradition of the epoch, so to exclude Acts on such grounds is specious; for then you would need to exclude all other Greek histories as well and thus cutting off the branch you are sitting on to doubt Acts. You cannot expect modern standards of historical writing in 1st century texts.

Anyway, Paul calls himself a Pharisee and his definitely authentic letters are clearly derived from Pharisaic doctrines such as Circumcision of the Heart and Slavery for God; so you need far better evidence to conclude a non-Pharisee and in fact non-1st Century idea of Resurrection was meant, which simply is not there.

Read the first verses again. Paul is specifically referring to his Pharisee background.

At any rate, Philippians 3 is the only place where Paul writes of his Pharisee background, and it certainly is not a ringing endorsement that whatever the Pharisee leaders believe, then that is what Paul believes. But for some reason, some people here choose to say that was Paul's attitude on some points (but only when the argument is convenient for them).
As I said, you don't seem to understand the Pauline letters and I think a big problem is that you are reading the English text with Modern shades. I have tried to explain this, but you can lead a horse to water, you cannot make it drink.

I disagree. The fact that Paul walked in Gentile circles is relevant to the question of whether he may have had some Gentile leaning views.
It is irrelevant to the question of whether he held to a 'spiritual resurrection' as this is alien to any gentile conceptions he would be exposed to anyway. For Greek Shades aren't resurrected but the dross of the living; demigods are given physical bodies sustained by their Ichor; Semitic peoples held similar ideas to Ruach and Nephesh; Zoroastrianism has Fravashi sending out Urvan to unite with the body that reunites at death to the Fravashi etc. None of these fit your conception at all.

Ah, so all first century Jews would be like the Amish in Intercourse, exposed to Gentile ideas. Interesting. And as the Amish in Intercourse are affected by that exposure, perhaps some Jews were too.
Correct, hence some Greek philosophic ideas entered Judaism and helped nurture the rich Jewish philosophic tradition that gave us the likes of Maimonides and Spinoza eventually.

The influence of the Gentiles on Paul's thought is well known. Richard Carrier has a substantial outline of the evidence in the Historical Jesus, including this footnote:

46. Popular philosophy’s influence on Paul: Stephen Finlan, The Apostle Paul and the Pauline Tradition (Collegeville, MN: Liturgical Press, 2008), pp. 26-28; and Troels Engberg-Pedersen, Cosmology and Self in the Apostle Paul: The Material Spirit (Oxford: Oxford University Press, 2010), along with the debate between Engberg-Pedersen, John Levison and John Barclay in the Journal for the Study of the New Testament 33 (2011), pp. 406-43, which collectively only confirms the influence of pagan philosophies, debating only to what extent Paul modified their ideas by combining them with Jewish ones (to create something new and different, the very definition of syncretism). 47. Francis Gerald Downing, Cynics and Christian Origins (Edinburgh: T. & T. Clark, 1992); and Francis Gerald Downing, Cynics, Paul and the Pauline Churches (London: Routledge, 1998); and L.E. Vaage, ‘Jewish Scripture, Q and the Historical Jesus: A Cynic Way with the Word?’, in The Sayings Source Q and the Historical Jesus (ed. A. Lindemann; Leuven: University Press, 2001), pp. 479-95; all in light of, e.g., Strauss, Four Portraits, One Jesus, pp. 366-68; and William Arnal, The Symbolic Jesus: Historical Scholarship, Judaism and the Construction of Contemporary Identity (London: Equinox, 2005), pp. 17-25 (who makes the quite correct point that being influenced by Cynicism does not make someone a Cynic, much less non-Jewish, and therefore most criticisms of the Cynic-influence hypothesis are based on fallacious black-and-white thinking that has no place in serious scholarship); see also William Arnal, Jesus and the Village Scribes: Galilean Conflicts and the Setting of Q (Minneapolis, MN: Fortress Press, 2001), pp. 52-59 (whose criticism is not against there having been Cynic influence, but against certain implausible theories that have been built on this premise). On Cynicism in general: William Desmond, Cynics (Berkeley, CA: University of California Press, 2008); and William Desmond, The Greek Praise of Poverty: Origins of Ancient Cynicism (Notre Dame, IN: University of Notre Dame Press, 2006). On what ‘Cynic influence’ looked like in other movements, useful for finding and understanding the same influence within Christianity and Judaism: James Francis, Subversive Virtue: Asceticism and Authority in the Second-Century Pagan World (University Park, PA: Pennsylvania State University Press, 1995)​
I suggest you read those citations instead of taking Carrier's word on them. The oft-cited idea of Cynic philosophy influencing Paul is especcially noteworthy for the lengths its adherents will go. Paul's doctrines are based in Pharisaic Judaism, not derived from Greek Philosophy. It is similar to how CS Lewis used the Tao in Abolition of Man to illustrate Christian ideas. Does this mean he derived those ideas from Taoism? Of course not. As I explained before, this was the HELLENistic era, everyone and everything was influenced by the Greeks, but his doctrines are not derived FROM them.
Huh? I told you that the Torah says nothing substantial about Heaven or Hell, but that later Jewish writers show openness to the idea. You say that I am confused, because later Jewish writers show openness to the idea.

Wait, what?

The first part of my claim still stands. The Torah does not address Heaven or Hell in any significant way. You insist that Paul would not deviate from the Torah. If so, then Paul has no need for either Heaven or Hell.
This is what happens when you depend on dubious sources. The Sadducees believed in a Written Torah given to Moses, the Pharisees in a Written Torah and an Oral Torah handed down from Moses through the sages to explain and extend it. All our sources (Talmud, Sanhedrin records, Josephus etc) all agree that the Oral Torah contained such ideas, so to a Pharisee, like Paul, the Torah would contain ideas like Gehenna and the Bosom of Abraham.
To repeat, Paul was not a Sadducee as is explicitly clear from his Epistles. This objection is either based on frank ignorance of Second Temple Jewish sects or disingenious.

For Josephus's views on the resurrection see Gaster, op. cit.
This is Josephus explaining the views of the Essenes, not his own views, so is really inapplicable to a statement of what "Pharisees believed like Josephus". Please read your own citations in future.

No, Mark 16:1-8 does not say he was risen. It says an unindentified man at the grave claimed this. Later gospels say he was risen.
? So a text saying that he was risen does not say that in your view. Okay then. We shall have to agree to disagree, for there is in my view an explicit claim that 'He is Risen' here.

Wow, where do I begin.

First you are "poisoning the well". You are saying because a writer made a mistake, you won't trust him on anything.
Yes, if that mistake is his life's work, he continues to defend it after almost all experts in the field dismissed it as rank nonsense and is well known for misrepresenting texts to fit his pet theory.
Would you let a Creationist teach you Evolutionary theory?
I'll read what he writes, but I am going to have to look up his sources and evaluate it myself, thank you very much. I am most definitely not going to trust his interpretation thereof, as your earlier citations culled from his works aptly demonstrate.

Second, all ideas begin small. Copernicus was in the minority when he suggested the earth orbited the sun. Carrier has written an extremely well documented book to make his point. The fact that many (biased) people have not yet accepted it does not make him wrong.
Christ Myth had its heyday in the late 19th and was discarded because it did not fit the evidence unearthed nor modern Historical criticism. It is not the little guy fighting valiantly, but the last gasps of a bloated corpse.

Carrier wrote a disingenious and frankly silly book that makes wild assumptions from minutiae and is roundly dismissed by Academia.
Tell me, have you ever heard of Chariots of the Gods by Von Danicken? I assume you would think it an 'extremely well documented book', but that does not mean its conclusions are worth the paper its printed on.

And third, getting back to the subject, if you think there is a substantial Christian record of the church between 64 AD and 95 AD, show me where. I have given you my source backing my claim.
There is if you accept Church Traditions. Carrier dismisses this as not explicit or credible. Tell me though, if you want to know about what happened in a minor sect of African witchdoctors in the late 19th century, do you go to British records or what their descendants say? The latter will have far more information. Obviously you evaluate both and if the traditions aren't far fetched and fit the mileau of the time, then there is little reason to doubt them. If your whole reason to doubt them is to support a minority position that no one takes seriously, then even more reason to be wary.
I trust original sources more than others' commentary on them and the works of the Church Fathers like Justin Martyr and later historians accord well with Tacitus and Pliny the Younger's evidence. Christianity was a vanishingly small sect for the period, so to expect vast documentary evidence is simply unreasonable, but to use this lacunae to dismiss what was later written on this period is throwing the baby out with the bathwater.
 
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Ed1wolf

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Ed1Wolf,

Why do you ignore what people write and demand that they repeat it over and over again?

I don't and you have yet to prove that assertion.


dm: Answered before.

Polycarp and early writers repeat only a few one-line quotes that could have come from Q, word of mouth, other gospels, etc. They do not give enough to know the phrases come from our gospels.

Why do you ignore what people write and demand that they repeat it over and over again?

Fraid not, the overwhelming majority of scholars from both sides agree with me that Polycarp was quoting Luke.

dm: Answered before.

Clement uses Isaiah 53 as his source on the crucifixion. He never said he had another source. He never references the gospels as his source on the crucifixion. And he could have heard of the story from many sources, including Q, word of mouth, other gospels, etc.

Why do you ignore what people write and demand that they repeat it over and over again?
Answered before.

No, most of those details about the crucifixion could not have come from those sources except word of mouth. Most scholars believe Q was just a book of sayings so it would have nothing about the suffering at the crucifixion. And very few of the false gospels go into Christs suffering to the extent Clement does. So it was either copies of the gospels we know or word of mouth. Probability says it was probably the gospels as we basically know them.

dm: We have the epistles, Clement, the Shepherd, the epistle of Barnabas, Thomas, and other writings from early Christianity before 180 AD. Before the middle of the second century, the gospels are on the margins, except for a few one line teachings that are similar to the gospels.

Why do you ignore what people write and demand that they repeat it over and over again?

See my post about the gospel harmonizations written in the mid 2nd century, they could not have written those if they were not well acquainted with fourfold gospel that we know today.

dm: I never, ever referenced a later gospel and acted as if it was just as accurate as contemporary writings.

I repeat. I never, ever referenced a later gospel and acted as if it was just as accurate as contemporary writings.

Please read what I actually write.

Please.

Fraid, so. Go back and see all your references to various false gnostic gospels such as Barnabas and Thomas that you even reference above.


dm: There are a lot of edits we know about. There are over 200,000 different variations in the New Testament manuscripts. There are more distinct variant readings in the New Testament then there are words in the New Testament. Some are significant. The ending of Mark after 16:8 was added. The story of the woman in adultery was added. And Matthew is a complete edit of the book of Mark.
None of those variations have any effect on historic Christian doctrine, including the ones you call significant.


dm: How do you know there were no (or few) edits before 150 AD?
How do you know there were no (or few) edits before 150 AD?

I must have asked you that a dozen times. You refuse to answer.

We have no clear knowledge of the custody of those books before the middle of the second century. We don't know what care was used in copying them.

I didn't say I know for certain but there is absolutely no evidence for them. There is strong evidence that they were in the custody of the early church which was primarily Judaic and they considered scripture sacred and sacrosanct and therefore not to be modified on penalty of damnation by God. They believed in moral absolutes which I demonstrated earlier with sociological studies generally makes people more moral and therefore less likely to write falsehoods.


dm: Huh? We believe there are transitional fossils, because many thousands of transitional fossils have been found. See (A few) transitional fossils .

No, most of those are not undisputed transition forms. Why do you think Stephen Jay Gould came up with Punctuated Equilibrium?
For example, basically modern-like bird fossils have been found in strata long before Archaeopteryx, so it plainly cannot be a transition form.

dm: And we believe there were variations in the New Testament because over 200,000 variations have been found.
None of those are anything significant. Just like none of the so-called transition forms turn out to be real transition forms.
 
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doubtingmerle

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No, see above. I am not sure what parts you are referring to as wrong, but not everything in Mark 13 is about the Fall of Jerusalem, parts of it are about the Second Coming.
Sorry. Mark 3:24-31 says "you" will see the Son of Man come, and since he was speaking to the disciples, "you" means the disciples. He emphasizes it by saying this generation will not pass away until all these things come to pass.

You tell me: Did that generation pass away before all those things came to pass? Did the "you" that Jesus was talking to see these things as promised? Then it seems to me that Mark missed the prophecy badly, and was not a good prophet.

And if Mark was not a good prophet, then he would not have known about the fall of Jerusalem in 60 AD.

Two of them are the reference to "The Twelve" and Cephas.
I must have asked you this ten times. You ignore it every time: Paul uses the word Cephas many times. If using the word Cephas makes something a creed, are they all creeds?

You refuse to answer. And you will refuse again, won't you?

For the rest you will have to read the scholars I mentioned in my earlier post. Who are all well respected and on both sides of the aisle.
Do any of them say the creed said many of the 500 have already died?
Do any of them say the creed said "last of all he appeared to me," meaning Paul?
How many of them include James in the creed?
How many are saying only that it may be a creed, not that it definitely is?

We have been over this dozens of times and you refuse to address these issues.
That is what it says and many well respected scholars agree that it is an ancient Christian Creed/Hymn written less than 5 years after the event. Read the scholars I referenced in my earlier post.
I think most say it may be a creed, not that they know it is.

And you have never shown where "the creed" specifically mentions that anybody saw the grave was empty, or that any of them had an experience more than the "heavenly vision" Paul saw.
See my post about the harmonizations that were written early in the 2nd century, that would be unlikely if they had not been widely known about in the first. Also, in this particular statement I was not referring to the gospels, I was referring to the ancient creed/hymn which predates the gospels by 20 years.

You showed me a harmonization from 170 AD. That in no way refutes my claim that the gospels were not widely quoted before 140 AD. You were told this before. You ignore it, and repeat the same claim that has already been refuted.
 
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