I just referenced several scholars that disagree with you.
So what? Having a few scholars does not make you right. I have referenced scholars that disagree and have posted their arguments. My scholars can beat up your scholars. Their arguments can beat up your arguments. But you ignore the arguments, and hide behind those that agree with you
The creed and the Gospel are not the same thing. The creed is a specific apologetic response to those that rejected the bodily resurrection. Paul did receive that from men/the apostles. He received the Gospel from God/Jesus Christ.
And the "creed" includes the memorized statement that many of the 500 have died!?!?
And the "creed" includes the memorized statement that I (Paul) have seen Christ!?!?
You have been presented with these arguments, and just ignore them.
Creeds are about doctrine. They are not about lists of evidence. V5-7 can certainly not be a creed by the definition of creed.
And no, you are wrong when you say I Cor 15 does not declare this to be the gospel. Read it:
Now I would remind you, brethren, in what terms I preached to you the gospel, which you received, in which you stand,
by which you are saved, if you hold it fast--unless you believed in vain.
For I delivered to you as of first importance what I also received, that Christ died for our sins in accordance with the scriptures,
that he was buried, that he was raised on the third day in accordance with the scriptures,
and that he appeared to Cephas, then to the twelve. (I Corinthians 15:1-5)
So yes, as written, these verses claim to be stating the gospel, and as written they claim to be written by Paul. The problem is that Paul says he did not receive the gospel from men:
For I would have you know, brethren, that the gospel which was preached by me is not man's gospel.
For I did not receive it from man, nor was I taught it, but it came through a revelation of Jesus Christ. (Galatians 1:7-8)
And yes, I know you say Gal 1:8 really means, "For I did receive it from man, and I was taught it," which is the exact opposite of what Paul says!
And as I explained to you before (and you ignored) Paul would never say that he did not receive his gospel from men, and then, when he summarizes the gospel, repeat verbatim what he memorized in a creed received from other people.
Anyway, back to I Corinthians 15:3-11, there is a strong case that this was inserted later, which, again, you simply ignore.
Sigh.
Maybe my memory is bad, but I don't remember you doing so.
See post #92 where I presented arguments and a link arguing against I Cor 15:5-7 being a creed quoted by Paul. You simply ignored it and declared victory.
I provided several scholars, whose work you can read, that IS evidence.
Do they say that there are Aramaic wording in I Corinthians 15:3-5 as you claim. What wording? You refuse to answer. What wording?
Oh, and did I tell you I wanted to know what Aramaic wording you were talking about in I Corinthians 15:5-7?
Sigh.
Shaking my head in sorrow.
Again, YOU made that part of your argument earlier in this thread. You need to tell yourself that. Nevertheless it was refuted in my post just prior to this one. Nothing Paul wrote makes sense if he believed that Christ was a spirit prior to or after His death.
ROFL!
Most people can understand things after a few repetitions. Let's try again.
The concept of a mythical Jesus dying is another thread.
The concept of a mythical Jesus dying is another thread.
The concept of a mythical Jesus dying is another thread.
The concept of a mythical Jesus dying is another thread.
The concept of a mythical Jesus dying is another thread.
The concept of a mythical Jesus dying is another thread.
Please let me know if I need to repeat that a dozen times more for your benefit.
Once again this thread is not about a mythical Jesus dying. It is about the question that, even if Jesus was real on earth, where is the credible evidence that he arose from the dead? Get with the program please.
If you would rather talk about the historical Jesus rather than this topic, then please read the lengthy discussion of that topic in that thread,
http://www.christianforums.com/thre...city-of-jesus-a-community-discussion.7939658/ . If that is the topic you want to discuss, please join in with what I said there. Please don't make me hijack this thread and repeat that entire argument here. That has nothing to do with this thread.
It is somewhat different from first century Judaism but not very different from the Judaism of the Torah.
ROFL! Pauline Christianity is very different from the Judaism of the Torah. I strongly disagree.
In his letter to the church at Corinth.
Where in the heck are you getting this stuff?
Once again, Clement does not mention the names of the traditional gospel writers as the authors of these books. If you think he does, please quote it back. Please don't make stuff up and hope nobody looks it up. You can find the book of Clement here --
http://earlychristianwritings.com/1clement.html .
Sure, he had some information about the origins of the gospels.
Papias? We don't even know what he wrote about the gospels, since we only have the words of Eusebius, who was notoriously unreliable, and claims that Papias wrote something 2 centuries earlier. Even if Eusebius is telling the truth, the portion he "quotes" from Papias in no way identifies the current gospels as being written by Matthew and Mark. The books Papias seems to be referring to are far different from the books of Matthew and Mark. And Eusebius credits Papias as only saying third hand what Papias supposedly learned from an evangelist who claimed to have known about the apostles of the previous century. Nowhere does Papias even claim to have saw the books. In fact, Papias even says that he didn't think he would get much benefit from books written about Jesus. You are on shaky ground indeed if this is your evidence.