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2 Thessalonians revisited:
2 Thess. 2:4 So that we ourselves glory in you in the churches of God for your patience and faith in all your persecutions and tribulations that ye endure:
5 Which is a manifest token of the righteous judgment of God, that ye may be counted worthy of the kingdom of God, for which ye also suffer:
Those that claim the worthiness of Luke 21:36 should claim this worthiness as well.
6 Seeing it is a righteous thing with God to recompense tribulation to them that trouble you;
7 And to you who are troubled rest with us, when the Lord Jesus shall be revealed from heaven with his mighty angels,
When will the troubled rest, according to Paul?
When the Lord Jesus shall be revealed from heaven with his mighty angels, is the answer to that question. That rest is tied to the coming described in verses 8 & 9 as well.
8 In flaming fire taking vengeance on them that know not God, and that obey not the gospel of our Lord Jesus Christ:
9 Who shall be punished with everlasting destruction from the presence of the Lord, and from the glory of his power;
What pretibber teaches the events of verses 8 &9 happen at a pretrib coming of Christ?
Challenge: Read verses 7,8 &9 together and make a case that the context here is not described as the second coming at the end of the tribulation
10 When he shall come to be glorified in his saints, and to be admired in all them that believe (because our testimony among you was believed) in that day.
It is at this coming 1:7 that He will be glorified in His saints.
2 Thessalonians 2:1 Now we beseech you, brethren, by the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ, and by our gathering together unto him,
By what method of rightly dividing the word can we separate the coming above in verse 1 from the coming in chapter 1?
Why would Paul start out in chapter 1 describing the return of Christ in flaming fire, taking vengeance on them that know not God, and punishing them with everlasting destruction, then go straight into talking about a previous coming before the tribulation, with no language to show it is a different coming?
2 That ye be not soon shaken in mind, or be troubled, neither by spirit, nor by word, nor by letter as from us, as that the day of Christ is at hand.
How do we rightly divide and separate verse 2 from verse 1 and then from the revealing in 1:7?
3 Let no man deceive you by any means: for that day shall not come, except there come a falling away first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition;
How do we ignore the clear meaning of the word apostasia (falling away) in verse 3 when the only other time the word is used in the New Testament is in Acts 21:21 below. What does the context of Acts 21:21 tell us the word means?
Acts 21:21 And they are informed of thee, that thou teachest all the Jews which are among the Gentiles to “forsake” Moses, saying that they ought not to circumcise their children, neither to walk after the customs.
The only departure here is a departure from the teachings of Moses.
The falling away is not the departure of the church from the planet, it is a departure from the faith! The entire context of these 2 chapters is the second coming of Christ in flaming fire, taking vengeance on them that know not God, and punishing them with everlasting destruction and our gathering . One coming, not 2. The departure from the faith cannot be code for departure of the church. The context of these 2 chapters, and word definitions simply will not allow it.
4 Who opposeth and exalteth himself above all that is called God, or that is worshipped; so that he as God sitteth in the temple of God, shewing himself that he is God.
The passage doesn’t say AC actually says he is the God of the bible. Look at Daniel 11:36-38 AC magnifies himself above every god (little g) and shall speak marvellous things (blasphemy) against the God of gods. “Neither shall he regard the God of his fathers” “nor regard any god: for he shall magnify himself above all”. AC blasphemes against the God of the bible and shews himself to a god greater than the one true God of the bible.
5 Remember ye not, that, when I was yet with you, I told you these things?
6 And now ye know what withholdeth that he might be revealed in his time.
7 For the mystery of iniquity doth already work: only he who now letteth will let, until he be taken out of the way.
If someone insist on arguing the “he” in verse 7 is the Holy Spirit or the church, then I’m going to argue you are mid-trib not pre, that is if you hold to a 7 year tribulation. It makes no sense that Paul veiled a coming in verse 3 and 7 while openly declaring the return of our Lord in 1:7,9,10 and 2:1,2,&8.
There is no scripture to suggest the Holy Spirit or the church is the "he" of this passage only the imagination of men.
8 And then shall that Wicked be revealed, whom the Lord shall consume with the spirit of his mouth, and shall destroy with the brightness of his coming:
Compare “shall destroy with the brightness of his coming” with 1:8 “In flaming fire taking vengeance on them that know not God”
Is this not also a description of the second coming after the tribulation? Paul is not jumping around talking about 2 different comings; with one so deeply hidden and buried in the text we need a pretrib scholar to dig it out for us.
9 Even him, whose coming is after the working of Satan with all power and signs and lying wonders,
10 And with all deceivableness of unrighteousness in them that perish; because they received not the love of the truth, that they might be saved.
11 And for this cause God shall send them strong delusion, that they should believe a lie:
12 That they all might be damned who believed not the truth, but had pleasure in unrighteousness.
Please, let’s stay with what the word of God says not the private interpretation of men.
2 Thess. 2:4 So that we ourselves glory in you in the churches of God for your patience and faith in all your persecutions and tribulations that ye endure:
5 Which is a manifest token of the righteous judgment of God, that ye may be counted worthy of the kingdom of God, for which ye also suffer:
Those that claim the worthiness of Luke 21:36 should claim this worthiness as well.
6 Seeing it is a righteous thing with God to recompense tribulation to them that trouble you;
7 And to you who are troubled rest with us, when the Lord Jesus shall be revealed from heaven with his mighty angels,
When will the troubled rest, according to Paul?
When the Lord Jesus shall be revealed from heaven with his mighty angels, is the answer to that question. That rest is tied to the coming described in verses 8 & 9 as well.
8 In flaming fire taking vengeance on them that know not God, and that obey not the gospel of our Lord Jesus Christ:
9 Who shall be punished with everlasting destruction from the presence of the Lord, and from the glory of his power;
What pretibber teaches the events of verses 8 &9 happen at a pretrib coming of Christ?
Challenge: Read verses 7,8 &9 together and make a case that the context here is not described as the second coming at the end of the tribulation
10 When he shall come to be glorified in his saints, and to be admired in all them that believe (because our testimony among you was believed) in that day.
It is at this coming 1:7 that He will be glorified in His saints.
2 Thessalonians 2:1 Now we beseech you, brethren, by the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ, and by our gathering together unto him,
By what method of rightly dividing the word can we separate the coming above in verse 1 from the coming in chapter 1?
Why would Paul start out in chapter 1 describing the return of Christ in flaming fire, taking vengeance on them that know not God, and punishing them with everlasting destruction, then go straight into talking about a previous coming before the tribulation, with no language to show it is a different coming?
2 That ye be not soon shaken in mind, or be troubled, neither by spirit, nor by word, nor by letter as from us, as that the day of Christ is at hand.
How do we rightly divide and separate verse 2 from verse 1 and then from the revealing in 1:7?
3 Let no man deceive you by any means: for that day shall not come, except there come a falling away first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition;
How do we ignore the clear meaning of the word apostasia (falling away) in verse 3 when the only other time the word is used in the New Testament is in Acts 21:21 below. What does the context of Acts 21:21 tell us the word means?
Acts 21:21 And they are informed of thee, that thou teachest all the Jews which are among the Gentiles to “forsake” Moses, saying that they ought not to circumcise their children, neither to walk after the customs.
The only departure here is a departure from the teachings of Moses.
The falling away is not the departure of the church from the planet, it is a departure from the faith! The entire context of these 2 chapters is the second coming of Christ in flaming fire, taking vengeance on them that know not God, and punishing them with everlasting destruction and our gathering . One coming, not 2. The departure from the faith cannot be code for departure of the church. The context of these 2 chapters, and word definitions simply will not allow it.
4 Who opposeth and exalteth himself above all that is called God, or that is worshipped; so that he as God sitteth in the temple of God, shewing himself that he is God.
The passage doesn’t say AC actually says he is the God of the bible. Look at Daniel 11:36-38 AC magnifies himself above every god (little g) and shall speak marvellous things (blasphemy) against the God of gods. “Neither shall he regard the God of his fathers” “nor regard any god: for he shall magnify himself above all”. AC blasphemes against the God of the bible and shews himself to a god greater than the one true God of the bible.
5 Remember ye not, that, when I was yet with you, I told you these things?
6 And now ye know what withholdeth that he might be revealed in his time.
7 For the mystery of iniquity doth already work: only he who now letteth will let, until he be taken out of the way.
If someone insist on arguing the “he” in verse 7 is the Holy Spirit or the church, then I’m going to argue you are mid-trib not pre, that is if you hold to a 7 year tribulation. It makes no sense that Paul veiled a coming in verse 3 and 7 while openly declaring the return of our Lord in 1:7,9,10 and 2:1,2,&8.
There is no scripture to suggest the Holy Spirit or the church is the "he" of this passage only the imagination of men.
8 And then shall that Wicked be revealed, whom the Lord shall consume with the spirit of his mouth, and shall destroy with the brightness of his coming:
Compare “shall destroy with the brightness of his coming” with 1:8 “In flaming fire taking vengeance on them that know not God”
Is this not also a description of the second coming after the tribulation? Paul is not jumping around talking about 2 different comings; with one so deeply hidden and buried in the text we need a pretrib scholar to dig it out for us.
9 Even him, whose coming is after the working of Satan with all power and signs and lying wonders,
10 And with all deceivableness of unrighteousness in them that perish; because they received not the love of the truth, that they might be saved.
11 And for this cause God shall send them strong delusion, that they should believe a lie:
12 That they all might be damned who believed not the truth, but had pleasure in unrighteousness.
Please, let’s stay with what the word of God says not the private interpretation of men.
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