Why do you believe in the trinity when God and his word is simple

[Albion]

So when paul says we were chosen as the elect of god before the foundation of the world that means that we existed before the world? Any existence we had was in gods foreknowledge nothing less nothing more.

Yes, we all know that.

 

[sdowney717]

1 John 5:7 For there are three that bear witness in heaven: the Father, the Word, and the Holy Spirit

Christ is the Word of God made flesh. Three mentioned in v7 is the Trinity in heaven.

 

[klutedavid]

A

Hello ImAllLikeOkWaitWhat.

You may be somewhat unaware of the true identity of the Christ in the scripture.

Your understanding of the revelation of the Christ, like most people through history
is sadly lacking. The apostles were not very strong on the subject of the divinity of the
Christ, most of them were poorly educated and not very strong in the Old Testament.

You said the following in your post.

I love jesus with all my heart but the fact is he is not god and never was.

It is interesting that you would take this stance, I have seen this viewpoint expressed many
times over the years. There are a few distinct religious groups that deny the divinity of the
Christ, you are not alone in holding this opinion.

The true identity of the Christ has been fully revealed in the scripture, the Christ is the entire
subject of all the scripture, i.e., from Genesis to Revelations. The Father is not the subject of
the scripture, the Father is invisible to us, unknown, and has never been heard! The only reference
to the Father in the scripture is the name 'the Father', which Jesus introduced to us, this is how
you know of the Father.

You may be alarmed at what I have just said, but I can assure you that this is true.

You said in your post that you have some knowledge of the Koine Greek and the Hebrew.
This knowledge is invaluable in understanding the correct identity of the Christ.

Please read the following extract from the first Gospel very carefully.

Matthew 22
41 Now while the Pharisees were gathered together, Jesus asked them a question:
42 “What do you think about the Christ, whose son is He?” They said to Him,
“The son of David.” 43 He said to them, “Then how does David in the Spirit
call Him ‘Lord,’ saying, 44 ‘The Lord said to my Lord,“Sit at My right hand,
until I put Your enemies beneath Your feet”’?

Did you see how Jesus referred to Himself, whom He identified Himself to be?

Surely you would have noticed this line, 44 The Lord said to my Lord

The verse that Matthew is quoting above is from King David in Psalm (110:1).

The english word 'Lord' is a very poor translation of the Hebrew words that David
used in Psalm(110:1). The translators are responsible for this dreadful translation
and they will be held responsible.

The word 'Lord' is actually the two Hebrew words 'YHWH' and 'ADONAI' in the
Hebrew text, please check this yourself. Obviously you would be aware that the Hebrew
words, 'YHWH' and 'ADONAI', are the two names of God used throughout the Old Testament?

Jesus is calling Himself either 'YHWH' or 'ADONAI', and take your pick, they both
are the names of the one and only true God. Jesus has told you who He is in this very
verse.

I have a vast amount of information on the divinity of the Christ, I will continue
post by post. Feel free to offer any resistance you like.

 

[civilwarbuff]

I have a vast amount of information on the divinity of the Christ, I will continue
post by post. Feel free to offer any resistance you like.

We await your revelations with trepidation.....

 

[civilwarbuff]

Feel free to offer any resistance you like.

Sort of like resistance to anti-christ......

 

[cgaviria]

I just hate it when people simply quote what someone else has stated without really taking time to read for themselves. Lets just start with this part of your link.



Guessing you don't believe the above highlighted.....
So, here is the below highlighted....

Joh 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
Joh 1:2 He was in the beginning with God.
Joh 1:3 All things were made through him, and without him was not any thing made that was made.
Joh 1:4 In him was life, and the life was the light of men.
Joh 1:5 The light shines in the darkness, and the darkness has not overcome it.
Joh 1:6 There was a man sent from God, whose name was John.
Joh 1:7 He came as a witness, to bear witness about the light, that all might believe through him.
Joh 1:8 He was not the light, but came to bear witness about the light.
Joh 1:9 The true light, which gives light to everyone, was coming into the world.
Joh 1:10 He was in the world, and the world was made through him, yet the world did not know him.
Joh 1:11 He came to his own, and his own people did not receive him.
Joh 1:12 But to all who did receive him, who believed in his name, he gave the right to become children of God,
Joh 1:13 who were born, not of blood nor of the will of the flesh nor of the will of man, but of God.
Joh 1:14 And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us, and we have seen his glory, glory as of the only Son from the Father, full of grace and truth.

Joh 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
Jesus Christ is the Word....He existed with God.....He (the Word) is God
Joh 1:2 He was in the beginning with God.
Jesus Christ, Messiah was with God in the beginning
Joh 1:3 All things were made through him, and without him was not any thing made that was made.
I don't even need to comment......

So, show me, in your own words (not some link) and with scripture that I am wrong.

The word "things" are actually not part of the original text. it was added by translators having the same kind of reasoning as you. The text should read,

All through him existed, and apart from him existed not even one which exists. (John 1:3)

So it is in fact saying, all life came through Jesus. Not all "things". And this coincides with the Genesis account of the existence of the earth and water already being present before Jesus began uttering other things into existence, including all life. You can look at an interlinear here and clearly see that "things" was added to both "all things" and also "one thing", should just be "all", and "one",

http://biblehub.com/interlinear/john/1-3.htm

 

[Wgw]

The word "things" are actually not part of the original text. it was added by translators having the same kind of reasoning as you. The text should read,

All through him existed, and apart from him existed not even one which exists. (John 1:3)

So it is in fact saying, all life came through Jesus. Not all "things". And this coincides with the Genesis account of the existence of the earth and water already being present before Jesus began uttering other things into existence, including all life. You can look at an interlinear here and clearly see that "things" was added to both "all things" and also "one thing", should just be "all", and "one",

http://biblehub.com/interlinear/john/1-3.htm

This is rather a non-point in that our Lord is alive, ergo He cannot be a creature.

 

[klutedavid]

Hello all.

John 5:37
And the Father who sent Me, He has testified of Me. You have neither heard His voice at any time
nor seen His form.

If no one has ever seen the Father, then who appeared in the visions of God given to the prophets?

If no one has heard the Father's voice, then who were the prophets listening to throughout the Old Testament?

The prophet Ezekiel stated, 'the heavens were opened and I saw visions of God' (Ezekiel 1:1).

So who did Ezekiel think he was seeing as the heavens were opened?

'and on that which resembled a throne, high up, was a figure with the appearance of a man' (Ezekiel 1:26)

If no one has seen or heard the Father according to Jesus, then who was the figure on the throne
with the appearance of a man?

 

[Wgw]

Hello all.

John 5:37
And the Father who sent Me, He has testified of Me. You have neither heard His voice at any time
nor seen His form.

If no one has ever seen the Father, then who appeared in the visions of God given to the prophets?

If no one has heard the Father's voice, then who were the prophets listening to throughout the Old Testament?

The prophet Ezekiel stated, 'the heavens were opened and I saw visions of God' (Ezekiel 1:1).

So who did Ezekiel think he was seeing as the heavens were opened?

'and on that which resembled a throne, high up, was a figure with the appearance of a man' (Ezekiel 1:26)

If no one has seen or heard the Father according to Jesus, then who was the figure on the throne
with the appearance of a man?

Obviously, it was our Lord in each of these cases, according to the Orthodox Church.

 

[Soyeong]

Anything that is as convoluted as the trinity can't be from God and can't be true. If you have to break out a calculator or it takes a very long time to explain something in the bible it is not from god and in the case of the trinity not true. I of course was raised to believe in the trinity but instead of rejecting god and becoming an atheist because the trinity didn't make sense I did my research.

There is a website http://www.angelfire.com/space/thegospeltruth/trinity/articles/About.html

That pretty much sums up most peoples awakening from the lie of the trinity and I encourage anyone who wants to know the truth to read at least that page. The main problem with believing jesus is god is idolatry. Sin. An unnecessary one at that. Satan does all he can to thwart gods word and rebel against god and does all he can to lead people to sin even accidentally like in this case. Satanists main way of deception is half truths. Not to say those who believe in the trinity are satanists but they are deceived in the same way that luciferians deceive people. Give them a little bit of the truth with the rest a bold face lie to keep them from their full rewards and power in this life and the next.

I love jesus with all my heart but the fact is he is not god and never was. He didn't create the universe or humans. Anything miraculous he did was through god not because he was god. The lie has spread like a highly contagious virus and now 90% of christians believe it and commit an unnecessary sin. God bless.

God is beyond on comprehension, so if you could fit God into a box, then it wouldn't be God. The Bible treats the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit all as God. According to Isaiah 43:11, there is only one savior and that savior is God, so if Jesus isn't God, then he isn't our savior. If you put your hopes of salvation in someone who was only a man, then you are lost.

 

[anonymouswho]

I just hate it when people simply quote what someone else has stated without really taking time to read for themselves. Lets just start with this part of your link.

Joh 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
Jesus Christ is the Word....He existed with God.....He (the Word) is God
Joh 1:2 He was in the beginning with God.
Jesus Christ, Messiah was with God in the beginning
Joh 1:3 All things were made through him, and without him was not any thing made that was made.
I don't even need to comment......


Hello my friend. I don't believe that is what John says. I'd like to share with you what I understand this passage to be saying, and if you find any errors, then please correct me.

"In beginning (en arche: no definite article; same as b'reshit in Genesis 1:1) was the Reason (Logos) and the Reason was moving towards (G4314 pros) the God (ton Theon), and divine (theos; no definite article) was the Reason. The same was in beginning with the God.
All things because of (G1223 dia) it emerged, and without it emerged not one thing that has emerged."

Here is an interlinear linked to Strong's Concordance:

http://biblehub.com/interlinear/john/1.htm

The KJV translates dia as "by", as though Yeshua was the maker of all things. Modern bibles translate it "through" as though Yeshua was some sort of tool that God used. Dia means "because of". God had a Reason for making all things, and it was because of Yeshua. But why?

"And hath given him authority to execute judgment also, because he is the Son of man." John 5:27

Yeshua is a man. God said He was making man in His image. Yeshua is the express image of God (Heb. 1:3).

"And God said, Let us make (H6213 asah: accomplish) man in our image, after our likeness: and let them have dominion over the fish of the sea, and over the fowl of the air, and over the cattle, and over all the earth, and over every creeping thing that creepeth upon the earth." Genesis 1:26

Yeshua is this accomplishment. We are all the son of Adam. The Jews thought Yeshua was claiming to be God by forgiving sins, since they believed only God can forgive sins. But Yeshua tells them otherwise:

"And, behold, certain of the scribes said within themselves, This man blasphemeth.
And Jesus knowing their thoughts said, Wherefore think ye evil in your hearts?
For whether is easier, to say, Thy sins be forgiven thee; or to say, Arise, and walk?
But that ye may know that the Son of man hath power on earth to forgive sins, (then saith he to the sick of the palsy,) Arise, take up thy bed, and go unto thine house.
And he arose, and departed to his house.
But when the multitudes saw it, they marvelled, and glorified God, which had given such power unto men." Matthew 9:3

Notice the plural "men" at the end of this passage.

John does not say anything about a "preexisting word", an "incarnate god-man", or an "eternal begotten God the Son". He gives us the Reason for all things, and then when we ask "Why", he gives us a "because of" answer. Simple and beautiful. There is one God, and He is the Father.

"And this is life eternal, that they might know thee the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom thou hast sent." John 17:3

Using simple logic, we can say:

A) the Father is the only God
B) Yeshua is not the Father
C) Yeshua is also God

If A and C are true, then Yeshua is the Father (but He isn't). If B and C are true, then A is not true (but it is). If A and B are true, then praise God our Father because He has given all authority to man!

Our Father loves you my friend, because you are the son of man. God bless you.

 

[anonymouswho]

Joh 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
Jesus Christ is the Word....He existed with God.....He (the Word) is God
Joh 1:2 He was in the beginning with God.
Jesus Christ, Messiah was with God in the beginning
Joh 1:3 All things were made through him, and without him was not any thing made that was made.
I don't even need to comment......

So, show me, in your own words (not some link) and with scripture that I am wrong.

Oops, my reply got mixed up in your quote. I'll just copy it here.

Hello my friend. I don't believe that is what John says. I'd like to share with you what I understand this passage to be saying, and if you find any errors, then please correct me.

"In beginning (en arche: no definite article; same as b'reshit in Genesis 1:1) was the Reason (Logos) and theReason was moving towards (G4314 pros) the God (ton Theon), and divine(theos; no definite article) was theReason. The same was in beginning with the God.
All things because of (G1223 dia) itemerged, and without it emerged not one thing that has emerged."

Here is an interlinear linked to Strong's Concordance:

http://biblehub.com/interlinear/john/1.htm

The KJV translates dia as "by", as though Yeshua was the maker of all things. Modern bibles translate it "through" as though Yeshua was some sort of tool that God used. Dia means "because of". God had a Reason for making all things, and it was because of Yeshua. But why?

"And hath given him authority to execute judgment also, because he is the Son of man." John 5:27

Yeshua is a man. God said He was making man in His image. Yeshua is the express image of God (Heb. 1:3).

"And God said, Let us make (H6213 asah: accomplish) man in our image, after our likeness: and let them havedominion over the fish of the sea, and over the fowl of the air, and over the cattle, and over all the earth, and over every creeping thing that creepeth upon the earth." Genesis 1:26

Yeshua is this accomplishment. We are all the son of Adam. The Jews thought Yeshua was claiming to be God by forgiving sins, since they believed only God can forgive sins. But Yeshua tells them otherwise:

"And, behold, certain of the scribes said within themselves, This manblasphemeth.
And Jesus knowing their thoughts said,Wherefore think ye evil in your hearts?
For whether is easier, to say, Thy sins be forgiven thee; or to say, Arise, and walk?
But that ye may know that the Son of man hath power on earth to forgive sins, (then saith he to the sick of the palsy,) Arise, take up thy bed, and go unto thine house.
And he arose, and departed to his house.
But when the multitudes saw it, they marvelled, and glorified God, which had given such power unto men." Matthew 9:3

Notice the plural "men" at the end of this passage.

John does not say anything about a "preexisting word", an "incarnate god-man", or an "eternal begotten God the Son". He gives us the Reason for all things, and then when we ask "Why", he gives us a "because of" answer. Simple and beautiful. There is one God, and He is the Father.

"And this is life eternal, that they might know thee the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom thou hast sent." John 17:3

Using simple logic, we can say:

A) the Father is the only God
B) Yeshua is not the Father
C) Yeshua is also God

If A and C are true, then Yeshua is the Father (but He isn't). If B and C are true, then A is not true (but it is). If A and B are true, then praise God our Father because He has given all authority to man!

Our Father loves you my friend, because you are the son of man. God bless you.

 

[Wgw]

Oops, my reply got mixed up in your quote. I'll just copy it here.

Hello my friend. I don't believe that is what John says. I'd like to share with you what I understand this passage to be saying, and if you find any errors, then please correct me.

"In beginning (en arche: no definite article; same as b'reshit in Genesis 1:1) was the Reason (Logos) and theReason was moving towards (G4314 pros) the God (ton Theon), and divine(theos; no definite article) was theReason. The same was in beginning with the God.
All things because of (G1223 dia) itemerged, and without it emerged not one thing that has emerged."

Here is an interlinear linked to Strong's Concordance:

http://biblehub.com/interlinear/john/1.htm

The KJV translates dia as "by", as though Yeshua was the maker of all things. Modern bibles translate it "through" as though Yeshua was some sort of tool that God used. Dia means "because of". God had a Reason for making all things, and it was because of Yeshua. But why?

"And hath given him authority to execute judgment also, because he is the Son of man." John 5:27

Yeshua is a man. God said He was making man in His image. Yeshua is the express image of God (Heb. 1:3).

"And God said, Let us make (H6213 asah: accomplish) man in our image, after our likeness: and let them havedominion over the fish of the sea, and over the fowl of the air, and over the cattle, and over all the earth, and over every creeping thing that creepeth upon the earth." Genesis 1:26

Yeshua is this accomplishment. We are all the son of Adam. The Jews thought Yeshua was claiming to be God by forgiving sins, since they believed only God can forgive sins. But Yeshua tells them otherwise:

"And, behold, certain of the scribes said within themselves, This manblasphemeth.
And Jesus knowing their thoughts said,Wherefore think ye evil in your hearts?
For whether is easier, to say, Thy sins be forgiven thee; or to say, Arise, and walk?
But that ye may know that the Son of man hath power on earth to forgive sins, (then saith he to the sick of the palsy,) Arise, take up thy bed, and go unto thine house.
And he arose, and departed to his house.
But when the multitudes saw it, they marvelled, and glorified God, which had given such power unto men." Matthew 9:3

Notice the plural "men" at the end of this passage.

John does not say anything about a "preexisting word", an "incarnate god-man", or an "eternal begotten God the Son". He gives us the Reason for all things, and then when we ask "Why", he gives us a "because of" answer. Simple and beautiful. There is one God, and He is the Father.

"And this is life eternal, that they might know thee the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom thou hast sent." John 17:3

Using simple logic, we can say:

A) the Father is the only God
B) Yeshua is not the Father
C) Yeshua is also God

If A and C are true, then Yeshua is the Father (but He isn't). If B and C are true, then A is not true (but it is). If A and B are true, then praise God our Father because He has given all authority to man!

Our Father loves you my friend, because you are the son of man. God bless you.

Do you even know Koine Greek? Interliner translations can be very misleading if used improperly. It is worth noting that virtually all theologians familiar with the text disagree with you, and your argument was not employed by, for example, Arius, who was both a native speaker of Koine Greek and the proponent of a non-Trinitarian theology, who would have made this point had he could.

 

[anonymouswho]

Do you even know Koine Greek? Interliner translations can be very misleading if used improperly. It is worth noting that virtually all theologians familiar with the text disagree with you, and your argument was not employed by, for example, Arius, who was both a native speaker of Koine Greek and the proponent of a non-Trinitarian theology, who would have made this point had he could.

Thank you for the reply my friend. No, I do not know Koine Greek, but I'm getting better. If you know Koine Greek, could you please point out any errors that I have made?

I don't think Arius would have agreed with me. Arius believed Yeshua preexisted as some sort of Son-tool that God used to create the Universe. Basically, Arius believed Yeshua was an exalted angel. Arius would have translated dia as "through". I believe Yeshua is a man, just like you and I.

Here is the Strongs concordance of dia:

http://biblehub.com/greek/1223.htm

The NASB translates dia "because" 111 times and "reason" 40 times. If you scroll down, you can read all the instances of dia being used. Sometimes, "through" is a better translation, but even some of these could be changed to "because of", and it still makes sense.

Thank you friend and God bless.

 

[Wgw]

Thank you for the reply my friend. No, I do not know Koine Greek, but I'm getting better. If you know Koine Greek, could you please point out any errors that I have made?

I don't think Arius would have agreed with me. Arius believed Yeshua preexisted as some sort of Son-tool that God used to create the Universe. Basically, Arius believed Yeshua was an exalted angel. Arius would have translated dia as "through". I believe Yeshua is a man, just like you and I.

Here is the Strongs concordance of dia:

http://biblehub.com/greek/1223.htm

The NASB translates dia "because" 111 times and "reason" 40 times. If you scroll down, you can read all the instances of dia being used. Sometimes, "through" is a better translation, but even some of these could be changed to "because of", and it still makes sense.

Thank you friend and God bless.

Alas the problem with your exegesis is that it collapses entieely when we come to John 1:14.

 

[anonymouswho]

Alas the problem with your exegesis is that it collapses entieely when we come to John 1:14.

"Who not of bloods, nor of flesh, nor of will of man, but of God were born, and the reason flesh emerges (G1096 egeneto: aroist tense)[correct arrangement of words] and tabernacles (aroist) among us, moreover/even (kai) we behold His glory..."

Or we could say...

"And the reason flesh becomes, and dwells within us, and we behold it's glory, a glory like of an only-begotten alongside of a father (no article and father is in the genitive case..interesting. This seems to be a simile rather than a literal statement), full of grace and truth"

I'm not sure which one I like more. Perhaps talking this through will help clear up any issues so I can choose one. Either one makes sense to me, or even both combined, but I'm leaning more towards the second one. However, to believe that some spiritual entity called the "Word" pretended to be a human for a few years, this is essentially useless and meaningless to me. Thank you my friend.

 

[AntoineL]

I think a lot of people think that if jesus isn't god then he loses some of his uniqueness or special qualities. Which could be no further from the truth. Its one thing if god himself just came down here and took on a body and died for our sins it seems even more remarkable if a man like you and me was able to do it. The reason christ was able to do it or at least had the opportunity unlike any other man than adam is because he had perfect dna implanted straight from the father himself. We unfortunately get dna that is mutated and sin driven.

Christ had the power himself to be resurrected on the third day and he ascended based on his own power.Why? Because he was God in the flesh. Why do you think he stated you have seen the father if you've seen him? Is it simply because humans are created in the image of God? No, its more than that.

Because Christ was literally the physical incarnation of God that needed to be brought down to offer the ONLY sacrifice that can open the barrier caused by the fall. It was by him that death, hell, and the grave was conquered.

You think any pure creature can do that? No.

Christ is not the mediator between Heaven and Earth just because his DNA was not tainted. People deny the trinity because their finite minds are unable to put God in a box in whatever form they want.

When you deny Christ as a member of the Godhead, you deny who he is. Oof course, Christ was like Adam because he was in the flesh and without tainted DNA like Adam was prior to the fall. Not because he was NOT God.

Christ is Lord of Lords and King of Kings and the mediator between heaven and Earth. He has laid down his life and was resurrected by his own power on the third day, conquered death, hell, and the grave, defeated Satan and ascended to heaven by his own power.And he will return to judge the world and establish a new kingdom.

NO OTHER CREATURE NO NATTER HOW PURE, not even the future saints, not even the archangels or the perfectness of Adam prior to the fall was/is able to do that. Why? Because Christ is more than just a clean good guy with super powers.

As a reminder, there is a hierarchy in Heaven. And there will be a hierarchy with the new kingdom. We are not going to be living in some notion of egalitarianism in which where all the saints are blasting off like superman just because we have new bodies with superpowers equivalent to God. We will still be dependent on God and will work through the holy spirit and glorify God. We will not be on the same level of Christ in the sense that we are sitting on the right-hand side of God's throne.

ALL are CREATURES except God.

• Angels
• Animals
• Humans and future saints

Christ is not a creature but for our sake ONLY became within flesh.

NO ONE is able to do and will be able to do what ONLY GOD can do.

I think this link will help you:
http://www.gotquestions.org/Trinity-Bible.html

Also take note that we see an unholy and false "trinity" that scripture reveals in the end times. Satan, the false prophet, and the antichrist.

Remember, that Satan tries to imitate God--He has his counterfeits.
Use biblical common sense and put the pieces together.

 

[The Portuguese Baptist]

Anything that is as convoluted as the trinity can't be from God and can't be true. If you have to break out a calculator or it takes a very long time to explain something in the bible it is not from god and in the case of the trinity not true. I of course was raised to believe in the trinity but instead of rejecting god and becoming an atheist because the trinity didn't make sense I did my research.

There is a website http://www.angelfire.com/space/thegospeltruth/trinity/articles/About.html

That pretty much sums up most peoples awakening from the lie of the trinity and I encourage anyone who wants to know the truth to read at least that page. The main problem with believing jesus is god is idolatry. Sin. An unnecessary one at that. Satan does all he can to thwart gods word and rebel against god and does all he can to lead people to sin even accidentally like in this case. Satanists main way of deception is half truths. Not to say those who believe in the trinity are satanists but they are deceived in the same way that luciferians deceive people. Give them a little bit of the truth with the rest a bold face lie to keep them from their full rewards and power in this life and the next.

I love jesus with all my heart but the fact is he is not god and never was. He didn't create the universe or humans. Anything miraculous he did was through god not because he was god. The lie has spread like a highly contagious virus and now 90% of christians believe it and commit an unnecessary sin. God bless.

So, Jesus is not God, huh? Or… is he?

• ‘In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.’ (John 1:1)
• ‘No one has ever seen God, but the one and only Son, who is himself God and is in the closest relationship with the Father, has made him known.’ (John 1:18)
• ‘“Very truly I tell you,” Jesus answered, “before Abraham was born, I am!”’ (John 8:58)
• Jesus said, ‘I and the Father are one.’ (John 10:30)
• The Jews accuse him of claiming to be God (John 10:33) and Jesus does not correct them.
• ‘Thomas said to him, “My Lord and my God!”’ (John 20:28)
• ‘In your relationships with one another, have the same mindset as Christ Jesus: who, being in very nature God, did not consider equality with God something to be used to his own advantage […]’ (Philippians 2:5-6)
• ‘[…] while we wait for the blessed hope – the appearing of the glory of our great God and Saviour, Jesus Christ, […]’ (Titus 2:13)
• ‘But about the Son he says, “Your throne, O God, will last for ever and ever […]”’ (Hebrews 1:8)
• ‘[…] To those who through the righteousness of our God and Saviour Jesus Christ have received a faith as precious as ours […]’ (2 Peter 1:1)

Evidently, you are wrong. Jesus Christ really is God.

 

[rapturesc]

"In the beginning was the Word, and the word was with God, and the word was God. He was with God in the beginning."
The word is referred to as a He, implying that Jesus was the word. And therefore pre-incarnate Jesus was God.

 

[Wgw]

"Who not of bloods, nor of flesh, nor of will of man, but of God were born, and the reason flesh emerges (G1096 egeneto: aroist tense)[correct arrangement of words] and tabernacles (aroist) among us, moreover/even (kai) we behold His glory..."

Or we could say...

"And the reason flesh becomes, and dwells within us, and we behold it's glory, a glory like of an only-begotten alongside of a father (no article and father is in the genitive case..interesting. This seems to be a simile rather than a literal statement), full of grace and truth"

I'm not sure which one I like more. Perhaps talking this through will help clear up any issues so I can choose one. Either one makes sense to me, or even both combined, but I'm leaning more towards the second one. However, to believe that some spiritual entity called the "Word" pretended to be a human for a few years, this is essentially useless and meaningless to me. Thank you my friend.

What you are basically doing is relying on the most dubious possible mistranslation, which actually disagrees both with what the Greek original actually said, and with how all ancient authorities who cared bothered to read it.

There is precisely zero scriptural justification for the Soccinian/Unitarian Christology you propose; of the two ancient groups that adhered to this, one, the Ebionites, did not regard John as a canonical Gospel, and the other, basically, Paul of Samosata, did not care.

Also it should be noted your translation of Logos as impersonal reason in the context of John 1 is quite absolutely wrong.