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This should end the discussion about easy grace and OSAS!

ToBeLoved

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The whole chapter is about the righteous judgement of God, which by following your view of the text leads to no room for grace and mercy of God. We see though Paul sums this up at the end by saying the true circumcision is of the heart in the Spirit, so then the new birth enables men to be led as the sheep of Christ doing what is pleasing to God..
Romans 2
29 but he is a Jew who is one inwardly; and circumcision is that of the heart, in the Spirit, not in the letter; whose praise is not from men but from God.

So then not everyone has the same ability do they. Some are born of God.

Paul says this because the Judaisers wanted the new Christians to become circumcised within a body part. That is why Paul made this deliniation. To show with Jesus Christ we are not followers of Old Testament law ("not in the letter") , but that Christ died so we can have God with us, the Holy Spirit indwelling us. The Holy Spirit shows us how to have a relationship with God among other things, one of which is convicting us of sin as well as praying for us when we do not know what we need.

This sentence
so then the new birth enables men to be led as the sheep of Christ doing what is pleasing to God..

is not what that means at all, because each of us still has free-will and can choose to obey the Spirit or not. While under the law, many did what was pleasing to God. The problem with the law is that you broke it one time, you were guilty of breaking all of the law.

In Jesus Christ, our heart is changed, not just our actions.

So how does your last sentence

So then not everyone has the same ability do they. Some are born of God.

I don't see that you've shown that or proven that at all. What I see is that you do not understand the verses that you quoted to prove someone else wrong.
 
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AndOne

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Nope. Never heard of Vanwold or his translation. Maybe I'm not as old as others, who do know about him. :)
My bad - sorry about that. You remind me a lot of him. Despite our differences I counted him as a brother and held him in high regard.
 
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Marvin Knox

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In Romans 9, the eternal status of Jacob and Esau is nowhere on Paul's mind. The following text does not even address the issue of eternal destinies of Jacob or Esau. Paul tells us what they are "elected to" - that one will serve the other:

Yet, before the twins were born or had done anything good or bad—in order that God's purpose in election might stand: 12not by works but by him who calls she was told, "The older will serve the younger." 13Just as it is written: "Jacob I loved, but Esau I hated.

The word election here means "choice". And what is the choice? Well what does Paul say? It is God's choice that the nation of Edom (Esau) will be dominated by the nation of Israel (Jacob). How do we know this? Paul tells us. He writes that Rebekah was told the purpose of God's choice. And he quotes from Genesis:
The LORD said to her,
"Two nations are in your womb,
and two peoples from within you will be separated;
one people will be stronger than the other,
and the older will serve the younger


And history shows that this came to pass - the Israelites did dominate the Edomites. And Paul knew this, of course.

Imagine Paul sitting there with his scribe, having just dictated "in order that God's purpose in election might stand". Where does this statement leave the reader? Obviously, it leaves the reader asking "Well, what is that purpose? What is God "choosing" or "selecting" Jacob and Esau for, exactly?"

So Paul answers this question: They were chosen / selected / elected to a state where "the older will serve the younger". Eternal destiny is nowhere in sight.

If Paul is addressing selection or election to eternal life or eternal loss in relation to Jacob and Esau, you have to believe that, after raising the topic of God's purpose in election, Paul has suffered a sudden bout of amnesia and makes an entirely unannounced and immediate transition to a different subject altogether - the issue of something else that God selected these two for. That is, one serving the other.

What kind of a writer would do that ? First, state that God has one purpose in selection (election) for two people, and then spell out the details of an entirely different election?
I find it amazing that people will purposefully try so hard to find another way to look at what they do not understand or what they do no like in the scriptures. Considering what is at stake with our teaching others here in the forum - it just boggles my mind that people would do that rather then just agreeing with what the Word of God says.

Paul is talking here about God's mercy and compassion over against His wrath and destruction. There may indeed be a side bar about service included here that one could teach on without going too far astray. But to purposefully ignore what God says here about the eternal destiny of individual men in order to further your own theological agenda is really too much to understand.

Read the section I have printed here and see that God is not talking about one person getting the best job in the kingdom and another person getting a lessor job. Nor is He talking about one nation getting the choice position in so far as being used by God for good in history over against another nation that is used for a lessor purpose.

It says very clearly that He is talking about vessels prepared beforehand for WRATH AND DESTRUCTION on the one hand and vessels prepared beforehand for MERCY AND GLORY on the other. Even before this God clearly talks about His hardening the heart of an individual. He is talking about people not just the nations involved. He is also talking about eternal things such as glorification and the wrath of God.

If you and others here are willing to twist and ignore scripture in this way simply because you are offended by a doctrine - then I can't help you and I am casting pearls before swine by trying. These doctrines concerning election and predestination are not only clearly stated in scripture. They are also inescapable for anyone believing even the most rudimentary basics concerning God's nature and the nature of creation and God's providential control over all of His creation.

Romans 9:14 What shall we say then? There is no injustice with God, is there? May it never be! 15 For He says to Moses, “I will have mercy on whom I have mercy, and I will have compassion on whom I have compassion.” 16 So then it does not depend on the man who wills or the man who runs, but on God who has mercy. 17 For the Scripture says to Pharaoh, “For this very purpose I raised you up, to demonstrate My power in you, and that My name might be proclaimed throughout the whole earth.” 18 So then He has mercy on whom He desires, and He hardens whom He desires.

19
You will say to me then, “Why does He still find fault? For who resists His will?” 20 On the contrary, who are you, O man, who answers back to God? The thing molded will not say to the molder, “Why did you make me like this,” will it? 21 Or does not the potter have a right over the clay, to make from the same lump one vessel for honorable use and another for common use? 22 What if God, although willing to demonstrate His wrath and to make His power known, endured with much patience vessels of wrath prepared for destruction? 23 And He did so to make known the riches of His glory upon vessels of mercy, which He prepared beforehand for glory, 24 even us, whom He also called, not from among Jews only, but also from among Gentiles.
 
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expos4ever

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I find it amazing that people will purposefully try so hard to find another way to look at what they do not understand or what they do no like in the scriptures. Considering what is at stake with our teaching others here in the forum - it just boggles my mind that people would do that rather then just agreeing with what the Word of God says.
I agree, and suggest that to see Romans 9 as teaching about personal election has no contextual support whatsoever. So I ask you what motivates you to disregard context and see this material as a teaching about the election of individuals when it is clearly a specific historical analysis of what happened to Israel?

Paul is talking here about God's mercy and compassion over against His wrath and destruction. There may indeed be a side bar about service included here that one could teach on without going too far astray. But to purposefully ignore what God says here about the eternal destiny of individual men in order to further your own theological agenda is really too much to understand.
Since when do the concepts of "mercy and compassion" only have relevance to the matter of what happens to people when they die? Many of the examples given in the treatment in Romans 9 have nothing whatsoever to do with the matter of election of people to an eternal fate. Pharoah, for example - Paul's argument is that Pharoah was "hardened" not to go to hell but rather to resist the departure of the Israelites, thereby setting the stage for God's great deliverance through the exodus.

Do you deny this? Good luck if you do.

It says very clearly that He is talking about vessels prepared beforehand for WRATH AND DESTRUCTION on the one hand and vessels prepared beforehand for MERCY AND GLORY on the other.
I believe I have never said that issues of salvation are not on the table here. But, as I am prepared to argue Paul's argument is not this:

God predestines each human being to an eternal fate

....but rather this:

God has predestined that he would use Israel's disobedience to bring the possibility of salvation to the Gentile.

If you and others here are willing to twist and ignore scripture in this way simply because you are offended by a doctrine - then I can't help you and I am casting pearls before swine by trying.
Well, let's leave the cheap shots out of this and discuss the actual texts shall we?
 
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expos4ever

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I find it amazing that people will purposefully try so hard to find another way to look at what they do not understand or what they do no like in the scriptures....
You simply did not deal with my argument about Jacob and Esau. People here need to understand that to make a proper and complete case, one needs to actually engage the details of arguments provided by other people. So please, have at it - get into the details of my argument about Jacob and Esau and show us all where the error(s) is.
 
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expos4ever

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Read the section I have printed here and see that God is not talking about one person getting the best job in the kingdom and another person getting a lessor job. Nor is He talking about one nation getting the choice position in so far as being used by God for good in history over against another nation that is used for a lessor purpose.
Paul has also said that he "hated" Esau and loved Jacob. Does this give us license to draw the further conclusion, over and above the "Edom serving Israel", that God was also pre-destining Esau to hell and Jacob to heaven?

Again, no. Look at what Paul is quoting from in verse 13:

An oracle: The word of the LORD to Israel through Malachi.
2 "I have loved you," says the LORD.
"But you ask, 'How have you loved us?'
"Was not Esau Jacob's brother?" the LORD says. "Yet I have loved Jacob, 3 but Esau I have hated, and I have turned his mountains into a wasteland and left his inheritance to the desert jackals."
4 Edom may say, "Though we have been crushed, we will rebuild the ruins."
But this is what the LORD Almighty says: "They may build, but I will demolish. They will be called the Wicked Land, a people always under the wrath of the LORD. 5 You will see it with your own eyes and say, 'Great is the LORD -even beyond the borders of Israel!'


A careful reading of this text shows that it in no way justifies reading "election to heaven" (for Jacob) and "election to hell" (for Esau).

Malachi is talking about the real world and how God works in history. Consistent with all we have seen thus far in respect to the Esau-Jacob matter - from Paul and from the author of Genesis - Malachi is talking about this present world - the cursing of the land of Edom.

If the issue were election to heaven or to hell, why does Malachi say:

You will see it with your own eyes and say, 'Great is the LORD -even beyond the borders of Israel

Could people be eyewitnesses to Esau going to hell and Jacob to heaven? Of course not.

Could people be eyewitnesses to Israel dominating Edom? Of course.
 
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klutedavid

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Hello Marvin.

If you read the whole chapter and maintain the context, it is impossible
to interpret the verses you quoted, as applying to individual election.

If you read a little further on Marvin, you will find what it is Paul has
been talking about since chapter two of Romans.

Romans 9
30 What shall we say then? That Gentiles, who did not pursue righteousness,
attained righteousness, even the righteousness which is by faith; 31 but Israel,
pursuing a law of righteousness, did not arrive at that law. 32 Why? Because
they did not pursue it by faith, but as though it were by works. They stumbled
over the stumbling stone.

I am not for the idea that God elects any individual to salvation, nor
am I against this idea Marvin. The simple fact is Marvin, the letter to
the Romans is about why the nation of Israel failed election. Paul is
not talking about individual election in this chapter.
 
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Marvin Knox

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The simple fact is Marvin, the letter to the Romans is about why the nation of Israel failed election.
The letter to the Romans is not about "why the nation of Israel failed election". How can anyone read it and say that. The book of Romans is about individual salvation from start to finish.

The 9th chapter includes a parenthetical exposition of how this all relates to national Israel. But it still talks of that subject in light of individual salvation - which is the subject of the entire book.
Hello Marvin.
If you read the whole chapter and maintain the context, it is impossible
to interpret the verses you quoted, as applying to individual election....
Not impossible. Consider these points:

1. The whole section (9-11) is about the security of individuals. Election of nations would not make any contextual sense. Paul has just told the Roman Christians that nothing could separate them from God’s love (Rom. 8:31-39). The objection that gives rise to chapters 9-11 is: “How do we know that these promises from God are secure considering the current (unbelieving) state of Israel. They had promises too and they don’t look too secure.” Referring to corporate election would not fit the context. But if Paul were to respond by saying that it is only the elect individuals within Israel that are secure (true Israel), then this would make sense. We are secure because all elect individuals have always been secure.

2. In the election of Jacob over Esau (Rom. 9:10-13), while having national implications, starts with individuals. We cannot miss this fact.

3. Jacob was elected and Esau rejected before the twins had done anything good or bad. There is no mention of the nations having done anything good or bad. If one were to say this is nations that Paul is talking about, it would seem that they are reading their theology into the text.

4. Rom. 9:15 emphasizes God’s sovereignty about choosing individuals. “I will have mercy on whom I will have mercy.” The pronoun hon (whom) is a masculine singular. If we were talking about nations, a plural pronoun would have been used.

5. Rom. 9:16 is dealing with individuals, not nations. “So, it does not depend on the one who desires or makes effort, but on the mercy of God” (my translation). theolontos (desire) and trechontos (effort)are both masculine singulars that is why it is translated “the one” rather than “those.” (BTW: I don’t like ESV’s translation of this (man’s) as it is misleading and, ironically(!) supporting of corporate election). It is hard to see national implications at all here. It is about individual desire and effort. The acquisition of God’s mercy transcends the ability of man.

6. Once again, Rom. 9:18, speaking in the context of the hardening of Pharaoh, Paul summaries what he is trying to say using masculine singular pronouns: “Therefore, the one God wishes to have mercy on, he has mercy on. The one he wishes to harden, he hardens” (my translation). It would seem that if Paul was merely speaking about national or corporate election, the summary statement would change from Pharaoh to nations (plural), but the summary here emphasizes the sovereignty of God’s will (theleo) over individuals (singular).

7. The objection in Rom. 9:14 makes little sense if Paul were speaking about corporate or national election. The charge of injustice (adikia), which much of the book of Romans is seeking to vindicate God of, is not only out of place, but could easily be answered if Paul was saying that the election of God is only with respect to nations and has no salvific intent.

8. The objection in Rom. 9:18 is even more out of place if Paul is not speaking about individual election. “Why does he still blame people since no one can resist his will.” The verb anthesteken, “to oppose or resist,” is third person singular. The problem the objector has is that it seems unfair to individuals, not corporations of people.

9. The rhetoric of a diatribe or apostrophe being used by Paul is very telling. An apostrophe is a literary devise that is used where an imaginary objector is brought in to challenge the thesis on behalf of an audience. It is introduced with “What shall we say…” (Rom. 9:14) and “You will say to me…” (Rom. 9:19). It is an effective teaching tool. However, if the imaginary objector is misunderstanding Paul, the apostrophe fails to accomplish its rhetorical purpose unless Paul corrects the misunderstanding. Paul does not correct the misunderstanding, only the conclusion. If corporate election were what Paul was speaking of, the rhetoric demands that Paul steer his readers in the right direction by way of the diatribe. Paul sticks to his guns even though the teaching of individual election does most certainly give rise to such objections.

10. Rom. 9:24 speaks about God calling the elect “out of” (ek) the Jews and the Gentiles. Therefore, it is hard to see national election since God calls people “out of” all nations, ek Ioudaion (from Jews) ek ethnon (from Gentiles).

11. In Paul’s specific return the the election theme in the first part of Romans 11, he illustrates those who were called (elect) out of the Jewish nation by referencing Elijah who believed he was the only one still following the Lord. The response from God to Elijah’s lament is referenced by Paul in Rom. 11:4 where God says, “I have kept for myself seven thousand men who have not bowed the knee to Baal.” This tells us two things: 1) these are seven thousand individuals that God has kept, not a new nation. 2) These individuals are kept by God in belief as the characteristic of their “keeping” is their not bowing to Baal (i.e. they remained loyal to God).

12. Using the Elijah illustration in Rom. 11:5, Paul argues that “in the same way,” God has preserved a remnant of believing Israel of which he (as an individual) is a part (Rom. 11:1). This “keeping” in belief of individuals is according to “God’s gracious choice” (11:5).

http://www.reclaimingthemind.org/bl...t-individual-election-not-cooperate-election/
 
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Marvin Knox

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Marvin Knox said, "I won't be dealing directly with FreeGrace2 any more because he has shown himself dishonest in a prior post as I have mentioned. He has done the same thing in the past and I simply won't deal with it any more."

Your opinion is totally false, but feel free to do whatever you want.........You've shown NO such tricks; only claimed them.............So, what's left? Attack the poster since you cannot provide any evidence to refute him.
Lest anyone forget how FreeGrace2 and I arrived at our current situation -----

Post 326 is very clear and should serve to remind everyone one of your tricks and the things that you do when you are shown to be wrong. It will show clearly why I will not converse with you on this subject any more.
 
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expos4ever

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2. In the election of Jacob over Esau (Rom. 9:10-13), while having national implications, starts with individuals. We cannot miss this fact.
You have not dealt with posts that challenge your take on this. Perhaps you have not had time yet. However, to remain a credible participant in this discussion, you must ultimately deal with these arguments. It is clearly not valid to simply claim that Esau and Jacob are presented as examples of individuals destined to different eternal fates. As I think you realize, the texts that Paul invokes in relation to these two are indeed texts that deal with nations. True, the texts do say that God "hated" Esau and loved Jacob, but, again, you cannot assume that these are references to these people as individuals. Why? Precisely because Biblical precedent shows that the names of people can indeed be used to refer to the nations with which they are associated:

Yet you have not called on Me, O Jacob;
But you have become weary of Me, O Israel.

Lest anyone argue that Jacob here is the individual Jacob, note that these words were written by Isaiah long after Jacob was dead. And there other examples anyway.
 
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expos4ever

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7. The objection in Rom. 9:14 makes little sense if Paul were speaking about corporate or national election. The charge of injustice (adikia), which much of the book of Romans is seeking to vindicate God of, is not only out of place, but could easily be answered if Paul was saying that the election of God is only with respect to nations and has no salvific intent.
On the contrary the objection in 9:14 makes perfect sense at the level of nations:

What shall we say then? There is no injustice with God, is there? May it never be!

In fact, context shows that Paul is indeed centrally concerned with the objection that Israel has been treated unfairly in the sense that God has not honoured His promises since most Jews have rejected their Messiah and are, according to Paul, facing ultimate loss as a result. This requires a response from Paul since the Jews were promised over and over again that they would ultimately be vindicated and rescued. And it is clear in the following introduction to Romans 9 that it is precisely the matter of God's fair treatment of Israel that is on Paul's mind:

I am telling the truth in Christ, I am not lying, my conscience testifies with me in the Holy Spirit, 2that I have great sorrow and unceasing grief in my heart. 3For I could wish that I myself were accursed, separated from Christ for the sake of my brethren, my kinsmen according to the flesh, 4who are Israelites, to whom belongs the adoption as sons, and the glory and the covenants and the giving of the Law and the temple service and the promises, 5whose are the fathers, and from whom is the Christ according to the flesh, who is over all, God blessed forever. Amen.6But it is
not as though the word of God has failed.

Paul could not be more clear if he tried: He is saying that even though Israel is mostly lost, this does not mean that God has not kept His promises.

And at the end of the chapter, we get a similar statement that only makes sense if Paul is concerned with an explanation of what has happened to Israel:


What shall we say then? That Gentiles, who did not pursue righteousness, attained righteousness, even the righteousness which is by faith; 31but Israel, pursuing a law of righteousness, did not arrive at that law.


Again, this is really quite clear: Paul comments that while the Gentile - not part of the covenant family to which so much was promised - now finds himself a member of the new covenant family, the Jew is now on the outside.

Clearly, the issue here is not an individualized election that has nothing to do with national identity; no, Paul is focused on explaining the sad state of Israel.

And, as he explicitly states in Romans 11, Paul believes that God has "predestined" Israel to be hardened in order for God's plan of redemption to include the Gentile:

But by their (Israel, by obvious context) transgression salvation has come to the Gentiles, to make them jealous. 12Now if their transgression is riches for the world and their failure is riches for the Gentiles, how much more will their fulfillment be!

This is precisely what we would expect Paul to say if the hardened vessels in Romans 9 are Jews whose hardening has salvific implications for the Gentile.
 
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sdowney717

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On the contrary the objection in 9:14 makes perfect sense at the level of nations:

What shall we say then? There is no injustice with God, is there? May it never be!

In fact, context shows that Paul is indeed centrally concerned with the objection that Israel has been treated unfairly in the sense that God has not honoured His promises since most Jews have rejected their Messiah and are, according to Paul, facing ultimate loss as a result. This requires a response from Paul since the Jews were promised over and over again that they would ultimately be vindicated and rescued. And it is clear in the following introduction to Romans 9 that it is precisely the matter of God's fair treatment of Israel that is on Paul's mind:

I am telling the truth in Christ, I am not lying, my conscience testifies with me in the Holy Spirit, 2that I have great sorrow and unceasing grief in my heart. 3For I could wish that I myself were accursed, separated from Christ for the sake of my brethren, my kinsmen according to the flesh, 4who are Israelites, to whom belongs the adoption as sons, and the glory and the covenants and the giving of the Law and the temple service and the promises, 5whose are the fathers, and from whom is the Christ according to the flesh, who is over all, God blessed forever. Amen.6But it is
not as though the word of God has failed.

Paul could not be more clear if he tried: He is saying that even though Israel is mostly lost, this does not mean that God has not kept His promises.

And at the end of the chapter, we get a similar statement that only makes sense if Paul is concerned with an explanation of what has happened to Israel:


What shall we say then? That Gentiles, who did not pursue righteousness, attained righteousness, even the righteousness which is by faith; 31but Israel, pursuing a law of righteousness, did not arrive at that law.


Again, this is really quite clear: Paul comments that while the Gentile - not part of the covenant family to which so much was promised - now finds himself a member of the new covenant family, the Jew is now on the outside.

Clearly, the issue here is not an individualized election that has nothing to do with national identity; no, Paul is focused on explaining the sad state of Israel.

And, as he explicitly states in Romans 11, Paul believes that God has "predestined" Israel to be hardened in order for God's plan of redemption to include the Gentile:

But by their (Israel, by obvious context) transgression salvation has come to the Gentiles, to make them jealous. 12Now if their transgression is riches for the world and their failure is riches for the Gentiles, how much more will their fulfillment be!

This is precisely what we would expect Paul to say if the hardened vessels in Romans 9 are Jews whose hardening has salvific implications for the Gentile.
Except that not all jews were hardened by God, some believed.
Romans 11
7 What then? Israel has not obtained what it seeks; but the elect have obtained it, and the rest were blinded. 8 Just as it is written:

“God has given them a spirit of stupor,
Eyes that they should not see
And ears that they should not hear,
To this very day.”

Since the hardening was not entire, then you must admit God had mercifully saved some of the jews, of which Paul here says they are elect.

Tying this back to Romans 9, which does mention some Jew and some Gentile among the called that end up obtaining salvation are also then elect because He is merciful to them, and yet He hardens others. Not only jew but also gentile, are hardened or he has mercy.

Specifically Pharaoh Paul teaches in Romans 9, a gentile, was hardened by God.
And the scripture does not distinguish out the jews, God says 'whomever'.

14 What shall we say then? Is there unrighteousness with God? Certainly not! 15 For He says to Moses, “I will have mercy on whomever I will have mercy, and I will have compassion on whomever I will have compassion.”16 So then it is not of him who wills, nor of him who runs, but of God who shows mercy. 17 For the Scripture says to the Pharaoh, “For this very purpose I have raised you up, that I may show My power in you, and that My name may be declared in all the earth.”18 Therefore He has mercy on whom He wills, and whom He wills He hardens.
 
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FreeGrace2

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Marvin Knox said, "I won't be dealing directly with FreeGrace2 any more because he has shown himself dishonest in a prior post as I have mentioned. He has done the same thing in the past and I simply won't deal with it any more."

Lest anyone forget how FreeGrace2 and I arrived at our current situation -----

Post 326 is very clear and should serve to remind everyone one of your tricks and the things that you do when you are shown to be wrong. It will show clearly why I will not converse with you on this subject any more.
OK, let's review what was actually said in post #326.

Marvin said this:
"You say that, if regeneration is the same as being saved, then regeneration is through faith as well. I totally agree with that statement. It is absolutely logical to say that.

You then say that, therefore, regeneration is through faith.

HOWEVER
Regeneration and being saved are not the same thing.
THEREFORE
You cannot logically make the connection that regeneration is through faith as you have tried to do with this passage."

So, first, Marvin AGREES with me by "totally agreeing with that statement"; that regeneration is through faith. He even says "it is absolutely logical to say that".

But, then, he says that I "cannot logically make the connection that regeneration is thorugh faith"!!!!!!!

He has totally contradicted himself.

And has the gall to say that I am playing games or being dishonest. How is it that I am being dishonest when he first agrees with my statement and then disagrees with it, and claims that I am the dishonest one?
 
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nobdysfool

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OK, let's review what was actually said in post #326.

Marvin said this:
"You say that, if regeneration is the same as being saved, then regeneration is through faith as well. I totally agree with that statement. It is absolutely logical to say that.

You then say that, therefore, regeneration is through faith.

HOWEVER
Regeneration and being saved are not the same thing.
THEREFORE
You cannot logically make the connection that regeneration is through faith as you have tried to do with this passage."

So, first, Marvin AGREES with me by "totally agreeing with that statement"; that regeneration is through faith. He even says "it is absolutely logical to say that".

But, then, he says that I "cannot logically make the connection that regeneration is thorugh faith"!!!!!!!

He has totally contradicted himself.

And has the gall to say that I am playing games or being dishonest. How is it that I am being dishonest when he first agrees with my statement and then disagrees with it, and claims that I am the dishonest one?



No he did not contradict himself. Read it again, carefully.

"You say that, if regeneration is the same as being saved, then regeneration is through faith as well. I totally agree with that statement. It is absolutely logical to say that.

You then say that, therefore, regeneration is through faith."

His agreement with the bolded statement is based on you saying that regeneration and being saved are the same thing.

He is not agreeing that the statement itself is true, only that it is logically consistent with itself, IF the first part is true, i.e. 'regeneration is the same as being saved'.

But all along he has said that they are NOT equivalent terms.

His point is that you engaged in the logical fallacy of circular reasoning, also known as begging the question.

His point is that they are not interchangeable terms. They are related, but different.

It is being seen as you trying to justify and "prove" you contention that 'regeneration is by faith' by means of a logical fallacy, and refusing to be corrected about it. THAT is where the charge of dishonesty comes from.

And I agree with his assessment. He did not contradict himself, the only fault one could find is that he didn't express himself as clearly as he perhaps should have.
 
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expos4ever

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Except that not all jews were hardened by God, some believed.
Romans 11
7 What then? Israel has not obtained what it seeks; but the elect have obtained it, and the rest were blinded. 8 Just as it is written:

“God has given them a spirit of stupor,
Eyes that they should not see
And ears that they should not hear,
To this very day.”

Since the hardening was not entire, then you must admit God had mercifully saved some of the jews, of which Paul here says they are elect.
I am, of course, fully aware that not all Jews were hardened.

Let's be clear about something: the use of the word "elect" to refer to these Jews, or to anybody else for that matter, does not, in and of itself force us to conclude that to "elect someone" is to foreordain their eternal destiny. I assume we all agree that, in Romans 9 at least, Paul is indeed saying that God has deliberately hardened some Jews yes, unto final destruction.

Note that I do not deny that there is indeed an issue of salvation in the Romans 9 to 11 treatment. I would like to say more but I am rushed for time and want to be very careful in how I word things. So I plan to post more later.
 
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sdowney717

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I am, of course, fully aware that not all Jews were hardened.

Let's be clear about something: the use of the word "elect" to refer to these Jews, or to anybody else for that matter, does not, in and of itself force us to conclude that to "elect someone" is to foreordain their eternal destiny. I assume we all agree that, in Romans 9 at least, Paul is indeed saying that God has deliberately hardened some Jews yes, unto final destruction.

Note that I do not deny that there is indeed an issue of salvation in the Romans 9 to 11 treatment. I would like to say more but I am rushed for time and want to be very careful in how I word things. So I plan to post more later.

That word 'elect' means in the Greek, chosen of God for salvation.
Someone who is predestined, is of course then elect, since God has chosen to save them before they were born.
Here are some sayings of Jesus and Paul that should clearly expose this.

Mark 13:20
And unless the Lord had shortened those days, no flesh would be saved; but for the elect’s sake, whom He chose, He shortened the days.

Mark 13:22
For false christs and false prophets will rise and show signs and wonders to deceive, if possible, even the elect.
In Context | Full Chapter | Other Translations

And then He will send His angels, and gather together His elect from the four winds, from the farthest part of earth to the farthest part of heaven.

Luke 18:7
And shall God not avenge His own elect who cry out day and night to Him, though He bears long with them?

Romans 8:33
Who shall bring a charge against God’s elect? It is God who justifies.

https://www.blueletterbible.org/lang/lexicon/lexicon.cfm?Strongs=G1588&t=KJV
Elect From ἐκλέγομαι (G1586)
picked out, chosen by God, to obtain salvation through Christ

No you may try to think 'elect' means God elects to save those who believe already, so God elects believers.
But Paul writes about the elect in this way and refers to them as the unsaved elect. Elect does include all saved and all who will in the future be saved. But focus in on the unsaved elect which I am trying to show you here.

2 Timothy 2:10
Therefore I endure all things for the sake of the elect, that they also may obtain the salvation which is in Christ Jesus with eternal glory.

See what it says?
Paul says of the elect for which he labors some are not yet saved, but they will be since they are elect. And by saying this, Paul acknowledges that he is not laboring for the non elect who will never repent and believe and be saved.

Since 'elect ' means chosen, picked out by God to obtain salvation in Christ, then Paul is acknowledging God is choosing whom will be saved and not Paul and not the people are making that choice as to whose elect, God is doing that choice.
 
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expos4ever

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I think the following (from somebody on the web) captures what I believe is the case relative to Romans 9:

John Sanders rightfully states that double predestination is what happens "when Romans 9 is divorced from its historical setting and universalized into a timeless truth." Indeed, it is because this chapter has been read the way it has since Augustine that it seems to obviously support double predestination. Rather than dealing with the topic of individual salvation, James Dunn provides, Paul here "is thinking solely in terms of salvation-history, of God’s purpose for Israel." He is talking about Israelites, addressing their history and their future, and is defending God's righteousness and faithfulness in his dealings with them: "It is not as though the word of God has failed".
 
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expos4ever

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That word 'elect' means in the Greek, chosen of God for salvation.
I am skeptical - please prove this. I doubt very much that the Greek word that has been translated as "elect" actually is so specific as to be limited to the matter of salvation.

And no, a definition from a Bible concordance like Strong's is not that helpful. The reason: it is certainly possible that the authors of this concordance have gone beyond what the Greek word actually means and added their theological interpretation.

What we need is a definition of "elect" from the equivalent of a Greek dictionary, not a concordance.
 
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brotherjerry

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That word 'elect' means in the Greek, chosen of God for salvation.
Um..no. It does mean chosen you got that part right. But the context of word in the sentence gives you the who chose (your "of God") part. And the purpose is also a different part of the sentence. But 'elect' in the Greek only means to chosen, or selected.

Greek word “eklektós” meaning “to call out or to choose.” Eklektós comes from two words: “Ek, meaning “out of” and the root word “légó,” which means “to call,” “to select” or “to choose.
 
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