What law did she break? Who is really being lawless in this situation?
"But is Davis really breaking the law, or is it the Supreme Court who has violated the law? The 10th Amendment to the Constitution reads, "The powers not delegated to the United States by the Constitution, nor prohibited by it to the states, are reserved to the states respectively, or to the people."
The Constitution makes no direct references to giving the federal government the right to regulate marriage.
The Constitution establishes basic rights for all Citizens (and even for non-citizens). As such, the federal government does have the right to ensure all Americans have their rights. I'm also curious why you never objected to DOMA being passed into law; funny how those against same-sex marriage are only complaining about "federal intervention" after the Supreme Court ruling -- prior to this they were promoting DOMA, which was the federal government defining marriage.
The 14th Amendment states that people shall not be denied "equal protection of the law," but the 14th Amendment was about race, not sexual orientation.
Please show me where in the text of the 14th Amendment it mentions race. The fact is, you can't because it isn't there. While race (the treatment of Black people) may have been the reason the 14th Amendment was passed, it does not only protect against racial discrimination.
Therefore, the Constitution says nothing about the federal government regulating marriage in regards to sexual orientation. Since that is so, under the 10th Amendment the federal government has no authority to legalize gay marriage and no authority to compel Ms. Davis to issue marriage certificates to homosexuals.
Except, as I've pointed out, that is not the case. Beyond that, you are completely ignoring the 9th Amendment -- which was also used in the case.
Again, the 14th gives "equal protection of the laws," nothing about "equal protection only based on race." The courts found that states laws that tried to limit marriage based on gender (requiring a man and a woman) were unconstitutional. I understand you disagree but they have a valid argument per the Constitution.
Now let's talk about the 13th Amendment, which outlaws involuntary servitude. In other words, the government cannot force people to take specific actions."
http://www.americanthinker.com/blog...in_violation_of_10th_and_13th_amendments.html
"On a number of occasions, the Supreme Court has used the sword of its unaccountable power to rewrite the Constitution and fundamentally disrupt constitutional processes. Notable examples include, as I’ve pointed out before, Dred Scott and Roe. And then, with the damage done, it has used the shield of the “rule of law” to ensure that its lawless acts are respected and enforced, without exception. The legitimacy of Davis’s protest is inseparable from the illegitimacy of the court opinion that made it necessary. And it is this very illegitimacy that means she should neither resign nor comply. Instead, she has chosen the proper response: resist."
Read more at:
http://www.nationalreview.com/article/423579/kim-davis-jail-supreme-court-lawless
This is laughable on the face of it. Kim Davis is a slave because she is being required to issue same sex marriage licenses? The judge gave her several choices 1) do her job, 2) quit preventing her deputies from issuing licenses 3) quit. A slave (or involuntary servant) does not have those types of choices -- particularly to quit.
By this logic, I could require a strip club to give me a job as a stripper, despite my age and even though I would never remove my clothes ("involuntary servitude") and then complain if I don't take home the exact same amount of money as the other strippers. It really is that big of a joke that you try to make that point.
"Many people are wrongfully conceding that what the Supreme Court decides is “law of the land.” Just about every talking-head on FOX news and the every presidential candidate is wrongly going along with this false narrative, except for Mike Huckabee, Ted Cruz, Bobby Jindal, and Rick Santorum.
Kim Davis hasn’t broken any law. As a matter of fact, she is the one following her oath and the law.
See Kentucky Revised Statutes Chapter 402.990:
Any clerk who knowingly issues a marriage license in violation of KRS Chapter 402 shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor. Any clerk who knowingly issues a marriage license to any persons prohibited by KRS Chapter 402 from marrying shall be fined $500 to $1,000 and removed from office by the judgment of the court in which convicted (KRS 402.990).
And so what would be a violation of KRS Chapter 402? Oh, well if the clerk issued "
Read more at
http://barbwire.com/2015/09/06/kim-davis-supreme-court-lawlessness/
Again, the Supreme Court ruling is now the law of the land -- regardless how many people like you or Kim Davis dislike that ruling. In fact, in that sense, the biggest difference between this ruling and
Loving v Virginia (allowing interracial marriage, which your logic would also claim was an "illegal ruling and not the law") is that, per the polls, a majority actually want same sex marriage to be legal. With
Loving v. Virginia, it took roughly 30 years before polls found an majority of Americans in favor of interracial marriage.
And, since the same sex ruling, KRS Chapter 402 looks more like this: "a license to known relatives, someone who already has a living spouse, someone underage." The last part, banning issuing licences to same sex couples has been struck down by the court from the law -- which is the proper role of the courts.