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Why do some believers of Christ feel the bible is withou error?

LoAmmi

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Luke didn't write Luke. Much of it was copied from mark

The books are only identified to a name by tradition and not by someone claiming to be the author. I use the name of the book since I would get tired of saying "the author of Luke" all the time.

Luke did not copy Mark in terms of Jesus's childhood.
 
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ToBeLoved

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The books are only identified to a name by tradition and not by someone claiming to be the author. I use the name of the book since I would get tired of saying "the author of Luke" all the time.

Luke did not copy Mark in terms of Jesus's childhood.
Another opinion. Opinion is not fact. Just sayin'
 
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LoAmmi

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Another opinion. Opinion is not fact. Just sayin'

Well, if it's just my opinion, you should be able to post the text from the different Gospels where the author identifies themselves. Or where Luke copies Mark's writings about Jesus's childhood. I'll just go ahead and wait for you to do that. Just sayin'.
 
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ToBeLoved

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I find it incredible that someone who has studied the Bible in the original languages would not know the context of Jeremiah 31.

I was speaking about a particular verse being prophecy. You have not shown that it is not.

How is Jeremiah 31 in error? You have not explained why that is, because it is not.
 
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ToBeLoved

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Well, if it's just my opinion, you should be able to post the text from the different Gospels where the author identifies themselves. Or where Luke copies Mark's writings about Jesus's childhood. I'll just go ahead and wait for you to do that. Just sayin'.

I'm sorry, I was under the impression that you could prove the Bible was in error, but it seems you can't.

Can you see why it is unfair to say something is in error with no proof of that?
 
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smaneck

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I was speaking about a particular verse being prophecy. You have not shown that it is not.

Never said it wasn't a prophecy. It is part of a prophecy predicting the return of the Jews from exile, basically saying that Rachel's cry for her children has been heard.

How is Jeremiah 31 in error?

Never suggested that Jeremiah 31 was in error. The error is in what Matthew's gospel does with that passage.
What Matthew's gospel is attempting to do is make the life of Jesus pattern the life of Israel as a nation. Hence the verse "out of Egypt I have called my son" which originally referred to the Exodus, now refers to Jesus and likewise "Rachel weeping for her children" which again, referred to the Exile is connected with Jesus' life. Likewise the slaughter of the innocence echos the story of what happens with Moses' birth. Now, I personally don't have any problem with a prophecy being fulfilled in more ways than one, but like I said, there is no historical evidence other than Matthew's own account that Herod ever slaughtered babies, or that Jesus once lived in Egypt.
 
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ToBeLoved

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but like I said, there is no historical evidence other than Matthew's own account that Herod ever slaughtered babies

Back then there were not many historians writing about Jesus life, so I am not really surprised no one documented it but Matthew, but that doesn't make it false as I'm sure you agree
 
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LoAmmi

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I'm sorry, I was under the impression that you could prove the Bible was in error, but it seems you can't.

Can you see why it is unfair to say something is in error with no proof of that?

I don't know what you're talking about. Whatever conversation you believe we are having, we are not having that conversation.
 
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smaneck

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Back then there were not many historians writing about Jesus life, so I am not really surprised no one documented it but Matthew, but that doesn't make it false as I'm sure you agree

Except there are three other Gospels where one would expect a mention of Jesus supposed sojourn in Egypt, had it occurred, but they are silent as are all the rest of the New Testament writers. But I would agree, this is not definite evidence that Jesus never went to Egypt. The slaughter of the innocents in Bethlehem is an entirely different. That is an atrocity that no Jew would have ignored. They might not associate it with Jesus' birth, but if it actually happened it certainly would have been associated with Herod's rule.
 
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ToBeLoved

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I don't know what you're talking about. Whatever conversation you believe we are having, we are not having that conversation.
Well I apologize if I misunderstood you, but you did say that you did not believe in Matthew. I think that's why I thought that you were saying the Bible was in error.
 
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LoAmmi

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Well I apologize if I misunderstood you, but you did say that you did not believe in Matthew. I think that's why I thought that you were saying the Bible was in error.

I don't believe in a single word of the New Testament. If you want me to point out errors in the Gospel, I can, but I don't imagine it'd be a pleasant conversation for us.
 
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smaneck

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Why would I feel Josephus would need to have written about it? Josephus was alive about the time of Jesus, not Jeremiah.

Did Herod's massacre of innocents take place back in Jeremiah's time? If so, Matthew really got it wrong!
 
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smaneck

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Hmmm... I doubt it. lol

So let's focus at the real issue. If Herod really massacred all those babies in Bethlehem like Matthew states, why is there no record of this elsewhere? Jesus could be ignored, but not the massacre like that!
 
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Blank Stair

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This was a question posed by a Mormon who are no longer allowed in the "Christians only forum."
The thread was opened August 6th. I don't know about the member being forbidden in Christians Only Forum however, this isn't the COF. Are Mormon's not considered Christian here?

Does this mean that the question is not valid?
 
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