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Jesus abolished the entire Old Testament.

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The differences between the covenants have nothing to do with the removal of the law.
Change in covenant stated. Heb 9:
17 For a testament is of force after men are dead: otherwise it is of no strength at all while the testator liveth.
18 Whereupon neither the first testament was dedicated without blood.
19 For when Moses had spoken every precept to all the people according to the law, he took the blood of calves and of goats, with water, and scarlet wool, and hyssop, and sprinkled both the book, and all the people,
20 Saying, This is the blood of the testament which God hath enjoined unto you.
21 Moreover he sprinkled with blood both the tabernacle, and all the vessels of the ministry.
22 And almost all things are by the law purged with blood; and without shedding of blood is no remission.
23 It was therefore necessary that the patterns of things in the heavens should be purified with these; but the heavenly things themselves with better sacrifices than these.
The New Covenant was with Israel Heb 8:
8 For finding fault with them, he saith, Behold, the days come, saith the Lord, when I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel and with the house of Judah:
Reason:
8 For finding fault with them, he saith, Behold, the days come, saith the Lord, when I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel and with the house of Judah:
What about the law? 10 For this is the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel after those days, saith the Lord; I will put my laws into their mind, and write them in their hearts: and I will be to them a God, and they shall be to me a people:
Conclusions:

  1. We are part of Israel or we are still excluded.
  2. The law is not abolished just move from stone to heart.
  3. The "Mosaic law" (ten Commandments) is either for me in Barbados or as a Gentle I still have no hope.
So sorry, it says new not additional nor remodeled.
 
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The scriptures has described what it calls new. If you rejects that as being remodeled I can not do anything about that.
Do you say Christians are subject to the OC? You do say Christians are subject to the 10 Cs which Moses calls the covenant in Deut 4:13.
 
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VictorC

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The scriptures has described what it calls new. If you rejects that as being remodeled I can not do anything about that.
The passage also rejects your attempt to call the old covenant 'new' by shuffling the old covenant to another location. This wasn't lost on the inspired author of the epistle to the Hebrews in his conclusion regarding Jeremiah's prophecy.
Hebrews 8:13
In that He says, “A new covenant,” He has made the first obsolete. Now what is becoming obsolete and growing old is ready to vanish away.
That vanishing act was a fait accompli by the time this same author penned Hebrews 10:9: He takes away the first that He may establish the second. God didn't write the old covenant into your heart, but rather took it away. What Jeremiah knew was that God would write His 'My law' that isn't according to the former covenant into our being. Many of us take the view this refers to God's promise to write His Spirit into His redeemed purchased possession, supported by Ezekiel 36:26. The following verse keeps statutes and judgments externalized, showing that they aren't written into anyone.
 
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ananda

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Just not what my Bible says.
Who left Egypt in the Exodus? "And the children of Israel journeyed ... a mixed multitude went up also with them" Ex 12:3,38

Who did Moses address before his death? "Keep therefore the words of this covenant, and do them, that ye may prosper in all that ye do. Your little ones, your wives, and thy stranger that is in thy camp ... that thou shouldest enter into covenant with the LORD thy God ..." Deu 29:10,11

Did YHVH include non-Israelites in His covenant? "One ordinance shall be both for you of the congregation, and also for the stranger that sojourneth with you, an ordinance for ever in your generations: as ye are, so shall the stranger be before YHWH." (Num 15:15) also see Num 15:3,14; 9:14; 15:9; Lev 24:22; Isa 11:10, Isa 49:6, Isa 56, Zec 2:11, Zec 8:22,23, Eze 37:22, Psa 22, 86:9, 98:3, etc.

What does your Bible say?
 
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VictorC

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If you rejects that as being remodeled I can not do anything about that.
I don't mean to badger you, but everytime someone points out something to you, your response shows that you can't defend the point you made initially - and you deflect attention with non sequitur fallacies that never addresses what someone shows you.
 
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Who left Egypt in the Exodus? "And the children of Israel journeyed ... a mixed multitude went up also with them" Ex 12:3,38

Who did Moses address before his death? "Keep therefore the words of this covenant, and do them, that ye may prosper in all that ye do. Your little ones, your wives, and thy stranger that is in thy camp ... that thou shouldest enter into covenant with the LORD thy God ..." Deu 29:10,11

Did YHVH include non-Israelites in His covenant? "One ordinance shall be both for you of the congregation, and also for the stranger that sojourneth with you, an ordinance for ever in your generations: as ye are, so shall the stranger be before YHWH." (Num 15:15) also see Num 15:3,14; 9:14; 15:9; Lev 24:22; Isa 11:10, Isa 49:6, Isa 56, Zec 2:11, Zec 8:22,23, Eze 37:22, Psa 22, 86:9, 98:3, etc.

What does your Bible say?
No God did not include Gentiles in that covenant. There is a qualifier you even quote "the stranger that sojourneth with you." This limiting phrase proves it was not given to the whole world.
 
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ananda

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No God did not include Gentiles in that covenant. There is a qualifier you even quote "the stranger that sojourneth with you." This limiting phrase proves it was not given to the whole world.
I consider "the stranger that sojourneth with you" to mean "the Gentile who follows YHVH along with native Israel"
 
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toLiJC

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Good point about the fault. The pro law camp says the fault was with the people (Jews). Is the fault (people) corrected? No. There are none that keep the law even today according to Romans (Paul), 1 John (John) and James (James). This is not even required according to the Apostles (Acts).

but if Jesus has not said (for example) "Ye have heard that it hath been said (e.g. An eye for an eye, and a tooth for a tooth) But I say unto you (e.g. That ye resist not evil)"(Matthew 5), then many could (continue to) follow the inimical ordinances of the old covenant (even including many christians), and so they would not be saved, moreover many engaged couples would be stoned to death just because they made love without having a registry marriage, and many women - just because their physical virginity could not be proven enough (because what would be e.g. if some girl unawares lost the integrity of her physical virginity(hymen) in case the law of the testament says "stone such a woman to death"(Deuteronomy 22:13-21)?!), and if the devil has not been completely and permanently cast out of the inner/domestic power of God, then it would be able to continue inculcating laws/requirements inimical to the humans in the covenant and so there would have been no New Testament i.e. perfectly good, and thus there would be no full salvation for so many people, moreover the principalities(spiritual systems) of the wicked would have the power to affect many more people with defilements such as homosexuality, psychopathy, villainy, etc. and then the greater possibility to judge them for becoming/being sinful so (just think how great guile is that)

Blessings
 
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