John 1:17 DOES NOT say that of Jesus. For the law was given by Moses, but grace and truth came by Jesus Christ. How does that say that Jesus did not teach the law? How does that compare with the fact that Jesus said He did not come to change the law?
How does Jesus teach His own commandments? Is His commandments different from that of His Father's? You would hold that view after Jesus Himself said that He and His Father are one? After Jesus said that if you see Him you see the Father? The point is that the Holy Spirit, the son and the Father work under the same principles so how can Jesus now have different rules than that of the father? Even Paul confirms the oneness of operation.
Cor. 5:19 To wit, that God was in Christ, reconciling the world unto himself, not imputing their trespasses unto them; and hath committed unto us the word of reconciliation.
John 1:17 is a statement of contrast and not a statement of equals.
Where does Jesus teach the law especially as a requirement for salvation? Quote it with full context in the light of the complete Bible.
God the Father and God the Son aren't the same as you intend. Yes I just admitted they're both God. I also mean they're both the same God. The FoB statement in your churches declaration isn't a Trinity statement which you deny anyway with your the Father and Jesus are one statement.
Jesus didn't say when you lock eyes on Me you're actually locking eyes on God the Father.
That's right Jesus didn't come to change the law. Jesus came to fulfill the law and did. That effectively makes the law covenant (a contract) completed and not only for the archives. The evidence is found in the New Testament. The easiest verse to show the law is either changed of done away with is Heb 7:12 IMHO. There are 4 choices the verse presents -
- the law is no longer valid
- the priesthood isn't part of the law
- Jesus is a sinner
- the verse is an outright lie
Take your pick. It can be multiple choice.
Paul isn't stating God the Father is in Jesus Christ. The Greek word is also translated by. And In this case that is exactly what God the was doing through Jesus, God the Son just as He (God the Father) promised in the beginning (Gen 3:15).
I quote v 20 for proof -
Now then we are ambassadors for Christ, as though God did beseech you by us: we pray you in Christ's stead, be ye reconciled to God.
To further back up my statement I quote v 18 thru 20 to show what Paul is saying -
18 And all things are of God, who hath reconciled us to himself
by Jesus Christ, and hath given to us the ministry of reconciliation;
19 To wit, that God was
in Christ, reconciling the world unto himself, not imputing their trespasses unto them; and hath committed unto us the word of reconciliation.
20 Now then we are ambassadors for Christ, as though God did beseech you by us: we pray you in Christ's stead,
be ye reconciled to God.
Paul definitely doesn't say within Jesus implying that God the Father is inside of Jesus being one in that sense.
Did the Father contradict His own Commandments as Jesus did all that He did in His father will? John 5:30 I can of mine own self do nothing: as I hear, I judge: and my judgment is just; because I seek not mine own will, but the will of the Father which hath sent me.
Its not a matter of contradiction but one of replacement as God promised through His prophets. But you don't believe that either.
The law says that we should have no other God! Are you saying that according to Paul we are deliver from that law? Did not Paul say Do we then make void the law through faith? God forbid: yea, we establish the law. Romans 3:31. How can Paul mean that there is no law for us and yet say that we establish the law? Would it not make sense to understand Paul as meaning that we are not under the condemnation of the law because we have Christ our salvation?
So you make Paul a contradictory fool. What's new? You must prove Paul is a total jerk to promote your doctrine. So far its very unsuccessful except in your own mind. No one like to be wrong or admit such.
Is it matter of choosing law over grace? Or having grace to Worship God alone? Grace to love your neighbour as yourself.
Matter of fact it is -
5 Stand fast therefore in the liberty wherewith Christ hath made us free, and be not entangled again with the yoke of bondage.
2 Behold, I Paul say unto you, that if ye be circumcised, Christ shall profit you nothing.
3 For I testify again to every man that is circumcised, that he is a debtor to do the whole law.
4 Christ is become of no effect unto you, whosoever of you are justified by the law; ye are fallen from grace.
12 For the priesthood being changed, there is made of necessity a change also of the law. This have nothing to do with the Ten commandments. Heb. 8: Now of the things which we have spoken this is the sum: We have such an high priest, who is set on the right hand of the throne of the Majesty in the heavens; 2 A minister of the sanctuary, and of the true tabernacle, which the Lord pitched, and not man.
Paul makes it clear that he was talking about the priesthood. That Christ was not a Levi.
13 For he of whom these things are spoken pertaineth to another tribe, of which no man gave attendance at the altar.
14 For it is evident that our Lord sprang out of Juda; of which tribe Moses spake nothing concerning priesthood.
And its clear that Paul said Jesus is a priest. Who's your priest? If its not Jesus, you're not a Christian. This indeed changes the jots and tittles of the law. Therefore the law is fulfilled as LK 24:44 states and shows the full meaning of Mat 5:17-18.