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He did all things for the sake of spreading his doctrine that he expected to cause people to believe in him.1 Corinthians 4:16 Wherefore I beseech you, be ye followers of me.
The Greek word μιμηταί (mimetai, from where we get the English work for mimic) does not carry the connotation of following him but of imitating his.
The NKJV has the correct translation.
16 Therefore I urge you, imitate me.
Including lie.
[FONT="]Romans 3:7 "For if the truth of God hath more abounded through my lie unto his glory; why yet am I also judged as a sinner?"[/FONT]
You need to follow the argument here instead of isolating verses. From verses 34 we glean that the unrighteousness of unbelieving Jews serves to magnify the righteousness of God. In that case, would it not be unjust of God to punish the Jew? What shall we say? asked Paul. He answered his own question with a second question, this time anticipating a negative response (God would not be unjust in bringing his wrath on us would he?). The answer (coming in v. 6) is a strong, Certainly not! Just before that, however, Paul inserted a parenthetic apology for the blasphemous thought of God as unjust. The notion that unrighteous conduct could ever serve to enhance the righteous character of God is strictly a human argument. For Jews to reason in this way would have been for them to deny a basic truth they held to be inviolable, namely, that God will judge the world (see Gen. 18:25 and others). If punishment on Gods part implied injustice, then God, who by definition is just, could not serve as the eschatological judge of all humans. In other words, we cannot have it both ways.
Paul then restated the thought of verse 5, this time in the form of another objection (v. 7). The antagonist (if indeed there is one) asked, If my rejection of the truth serves to make the truthfulness of God more apparent and thus increase his glory, then why am I still condemned as a sinner? In fact, why should we not say, Let us do evil that good may result (v. 8)? This is the context in which he states, from a human perspective, about his "lie."
2 Corinthians 12:15-16 And I will very gladly spend and be spent for you; though the more abundantly I love you, the less I be loved. 16 But be it so, I did not burden you: nevertheless, being crafty, I caught you with guile.
First, lets post the verse in context not in isolation.
14 Now for the third time I am ready to come to you. And I will not be burdensome to you; for I do not seek yours, but you. For the children ought not to lay up for the parents, but the parents for the children. 15 And I will very gladly spend and be spent for your souls; though the more abundantly I love you, the less I am loved.
16 But be that as it may, I did not burden you. Nevertheless, being crafty, I caught you by cunning! 17 Did I take advantage of you by any of those whom I sent to you? 18 I urged Titus, and sent our brother with him. Did Titus take advantage of you? Did we not walk in the same spirit? Did we not walk in the same steps?
Paul is countering an accusation that he was gaining financially from his ministry. The Corinthians, however, must agree that he has never asked for nor taken any material support from them for himself (1 Cor 9:12 and others). But someone apparently has twisted his actions and concocted a conspiracy theory that Paul had hatched some dark plan to deceive them by profiting from the collection for Jerusalem. They accuse him of being crafty and catching them with guile (see 2 Cor. 4:2). To use financial intermediaries to appear clean by concern for financial matters was not without precedent in the ancient world. Isocrates mocked the hypocrisy of the sophists who did not trust the virtue of their students and insisted that their fees be paid in advance and deposited with a third party. Maybe someone claimed that the collection was all a ruse by which Paul would have associates gather up the money and he would skim a portion off the top without them being any the wiser and without incurring any social debt to them. Verse 16 is not stating that Paul caught them with cunning. The verse is an antiphrasis (irony of one word, like calling a dwarf a giant.
As admitted here:
[FONT="]1 Corinthians 9:19-23 [/FONT][FONT="]"I made myself servant unto all, that I might gain the more. And unto the Jews I became as a Jew, that I might gain the Jews; to them that are under the law, as under the law, that I might gain them that are under the law; To them that are without law, as without law, that I might gain them that are without law. ... I am made all things to all men, that I might by all means save some. And this I do for the gospel's sake"[/FONT]
Nope.
2 Corinthians 11:1-9Paul and the False Apostles
Are you seriously calling Paul a false apostle?
Saul was a Pharisee and a Jew, Paul was the Latin namesake inherited from his father because he was also a Roman citizen.
I know that and that is not what I said. Saul is the name use of Paul prior to his convertion and Paul is the name used after. Saul was the Pharisee that prosecuted the church while Paul is the Christian.
I don't wish this to sound rude either however, if you make a proclamation such as Paul's being a Pharisee has been refuted, it is incumbent on you to show proof to support that proclamation.
Saying that Saul's being a Pharisee has been refuted and then telling people if they want proof of that go look for it, isn't how a discussion regarding claims and counter claims, is carried out.
I was not replying to you but to the person which the argument was made. To ask others to re-post answers to arguments that could have taken several posts is unreasonable.
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