You appear to ignore what comes AFTER your emphasis. The verse neither states nor implies that a rainbow had never occurred before. You appear to "prove" your point by simply restating it as fact! Can't you at least provide some kind of EVIDENCE for your position that rainbows were "new" to the earth?
There isn't really any evidence either way. The indication is that it was the first rainbow, as it was established as the covenant between God and man. There are only three other times a rainbow is even mentioned in the Bible: Ezekiel 1:28, Revelation 4:3, and Revelation 10:1. Apparently it's not a very important subject, though each time it is mentioned it is used in the context of God and his sovereign power. Apparently it was quite a big thing after the flood, since there are several verses in the passage which discuss it.
Previously it was noted that in the time of Adam no rain had fallen on the earth. Genesis 2:5-6
When no bush of the field was yet in the land and no small plant of the field had yet sprung upfor the LORD God had not caused it to rain on the land, and there was no man to work the ground, and a mist was going up from the land and was watering the whole face of the ground.
Surely some time between Adam and Noah it rained, but rainbows require sunlight and rain saturated skies at the same time. Did they exist? Is "
I have set my bow in the cloud" a description of a new action or old? It could be either. We don't know the saturation of water vapor in the air at the time. The possibility exists that rainbows had been seen before, and the possibilities exist that the flood forever changed the water cycle of the planet. Regardless, it was a sign that God would never AGAIN destroy all ife on the planet.
At "the last supper" Jesus establish the bread and the wine as symbols of "my flesh" and "my blood". Did bread and wine exist prior to having that symbolic significance?
Are we being foolish here?
So why do you believe rainbows were any different?
There are
many who believe it was the
first rainbow. I frankly have no strong feelings one way or another. Most theologians I have known talked about the rainbow being established after the flood. Does that contradict science? What in the Scriptures doesn't?
For that matter, do you think circumcision had never existed as a custom before Abraham was told that it would be a covenantal sign? (I don't take a strong side either way on that one. Just curious.)
Circumcision and baptism were already in existence before they became part of the covenent. I just find it hard to believe that Noah would be impressed by a rainbow if they were an everyday event, and further, the amount of water on the earth could well have made serious changes to the water cycle.
As to whether the rainbow being a minor side-issue, I was saying it was or wasn't. You had made the assertion that rainbows had never appeared prior to their having covenant significance and I merely observed that there was ZERO SCRIPTURAL SUPPORT for that position.
Actually the Scriptural debate boils down to whether the verb used was in present tense or past tense. As to to the global flood, there is no doubt it was intended to kill all living land dwellers other than the eight in the ark.
Yet, to make you point, you simply quoted the same passage and somehow "extracted" the imagined fact from the text.
Not at all. I posted a passage instead of a verse to give it proper context. Many people try to post a word or a phrase with no context. I have no problem with anyone reading what I read differently. I have a problem with people misrepresenting what is written.
The fact that God "set his bow in the clouds" says NOTHING about whether the rainbow had existed before.
It depends on the usage of the verb "set." Did He JUST set the bow in the clouds, or did He do it a thousand years before? In context. it appears that God is revealing to Noah something new.
I don't think this will be on the final test either way.
You appear to confuse a RESTATEMENT of your position as if such interpretations constitute EVIDENCE of your positions.
As I've said many times before, I have no problem with people reading the text and coming away with a different conclusion IF their interpretation is based on the Scriptures and not the theories of men.
But in this case you are making the unbiblical claim that if Noah and his predecessors had sprayed water into the air in a fine mist on a sunny day, light would have failed to refract to create prismatic colors. To do, you would have to make claims about the index of refraction which would render Noah and his predecessors effectively blind. After all, how could the lens of an eye operate where the physics of light defies the focusing of light.
How do we know the molecular make-up of the air was the same? How do we know whether morning or afternoon rains were ever followed by bright sunlight?
In the King James version, we read in Genesis 9:
13 I do set my bow in the cloud, and it shall be for a token of a covenant between me and the earth.
14 And it shall come to pass, when I bring a cloud over the earth, that the bow shall be seen in the cloud.
"I do" is an active verb. So is "Shall be." This translation indicates something new.
The New English Translation words it this way:
"I will place my rainbow in the clouds, and it will become a guarantee of the covenant between me and the earth."
I will is absolutely an active verb use, meaning it had not been done before.
I find that the creationist tendency to favor tradition over what the Bible actually says often leads them into destroying their own arguments.
Spurious accusation. I eschew tradition.
If it is so "plain", why do so many scholars who read Hebrew point out that the Genesis text says nothing about a global flood?
And now, from the insignificant we denigrate to the lie you will try to pull off without any passages from the Scripture whatever to support your distortions.
And why do they also deny your claim that "every land dwelling thing on the PLANET earth that breathed air" was destroyed?
And the waters shall never again become a flood to destroy all flesh.
Neither will I ever again strike down every living creature as I have done.
If they deny the word of God they are false teachers.
As you surely know, everyone agrees that this statement applied to the ERETZ (the land) but not to the PLANET EARTH.
Your statement is a blatant and deliberate falsehood.
Genesis 7:
18 And the waters prevailed, and were increased greatly upon the earth; and the ark went upon the face of the waters.
19 And the waters prevailed exceedingly upon the earth; and all the high hills, that were under the whole heaven, were covered.
20 Fifteen cubits upward did the waters prevail; and the mountains were covered.
21 And all flesh died that moved upon the earth, both of fowl, and of cattle, and of beast, and of every creeping thing that creepeth upon the earth, and every man:
22 All in whose nostrils was the breath of life, of all that was in the dry land, died.
23 And every living substance was destroyed which was upon the face of the ground, both man, and cattle, and the creeping things, and the fowl of the heaven; and they were destroyed from the earth: and Noah only remained alive, and they that were with him in the ark.
Apparently not everyone agrees with you.
Indeed, if the Hebrew text had intended to refer to ALL lands, ERETZ would have been in the plural! But it was not!
You cannot possibly infer a regional flood out of that pasage and be classified as a sentinent person.
Matthew 24:
37 But as the days of Noah were, so shall also the coming of the Son of man be.
38 For as in the days that were before the flood they were eating and drinking, marrying and giving in marriage, until the day that Noe entered into the ark,
39 And knew not until the flood came, and took them all away; so shall also the coming of the Son of man be.
2 Peter 3:6
6 Whereby the world that then was, being overflowed with water, perished:
Luke 17:
26 And as it was in the days of Noe, so shall it be also in the days of the Son of man.
27 They did eat, they drank, they married wives, they were given in marriage, until the day that Noah entered into the ark, and the flood came, and destroyed them all.
28 Likewise also as it was in the days of Lot; they did eat, they drank, they bought, they sold, they planted, they builded;
29 But the same day that Lot went out of Sodom it rained fire and brimstone from heaven, and destroyed them all.
There exists NO DOUBT that the Bible very specifically describes a global flood that destroyed all of life on the surface of the earth.
I'm curious, when Genesis also says that people from every nation journeyed to Egypt to buy food during the famine, do you consistently and literally interpret that to mean that people from Japan, South Africa, Panama, and Hawaii trekked to buy grain from Joseph?
I'm curious. When the Bible states that the water prevailed 15 cubits above the mountain peaks, do you think that the water could have stacked up in itself to flood one region of the earth and not the other so that your precious theory of evolution could survive?
Why are you questioning whether God lied? God did NOT promise "to never again strike down every living creature". No, he promised to not do so "as I have done"! You have a habit of cutting God's statements short in order to make your case.
Now THAT'S the lie of the year!! I have a tendency to post TOO MUCH, not too little. As you recall, I'm the one who posted all the other verses to bracket the one you posted.
Now if God had NOT struck down every living creature, how could he not vow to do "as I have done?" That makes no sense whatever. You're twisting the Scriptures in a desperate attempt to make them say what you want them to say.
God included the "as I have done" to make clear that (1) he was NOT saying that he would never again render judgment on a massive scale, (2) but he WAS saying that he would not repeat that particular kind of year long flood of Noah's ERETZ and thereby destroy all NEPHESH life within the ERETZ.
Neither will I ever again strike down every living creature as I have done.
Genesis 8 again, in full context:
20 Then Noah built an altar to the Lord, and took of every clean animal and of every clean bird and offered burnt offerings on the altar. 21 The Lord smelled the soothing aroma; and the Lord said to Himself, I will never again curse the ground on account of man, for the intent of mans heart is evil from his youth; and I will never again destroy every living thing, as I have done.
22 While the earth remains, Seedtime and harvest, And cold and heat, And summer and winter, And day and night Shall not cease.
In fact, we already established that if God had wished to say that ALL LANDS were subject to the watery judgment, he could have used ERETZ in the plural, as the Biblical text does in other contexts when a much large geographic area was the intention!
I find it amazing that you can strain out so much information and dwell on whether a single word was used in plural or not; like the man who can strain out a gnat and swallow a camel. Fortunately, and understanding of Genesis is not required for salvation.
A little common sense needs to be applied here. Dr. Brewer is correct that kol eretz could refer to a limited area. He is also correct that kol ha shamaim appears in Deuteronomy 2:25, where it might not refer to the whole world (though it is certainly arguable that it could refer to the whole world). Where the common sense comes in is to look at all these facts together. Dr. Brewer seems to imagine that a Flood in the region of Mesopotamia could cover every high hill to a depth of 15 cubits (Genesis 7:20) and yet remain as a local, albeit very large event. This is simply not credible. It makes far more sense to accept the plain meaning of the text, which is that the water covered the entire planet, covering every high hill. Dr. Brewer suggests that there were mountains visible at the edge of the Flood area, quoting Genesis 8:5-9. In fact, the obvious meaning of this passage is that some mountains had become visible, as the waters were abating.
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A better definition of the Hebrew word on which your entire belief system hangs can be found here:
Remembering these facts let us consider the book of Genesis. Firstly we are told that God created 'the heavens and the earth (eretz)' (Genesis 1.1). Here the word eretz clearly means 'world' from its context, including land and sea. Then we are told God called the dry land 'eretz' (Genesis 1.10), and this is its meaning for the rest of Genesis 1. Thus eretz does not just mean one closely defined thing. Thus in 2.1, 4 the meaning reverts back to 'the whole world'. In 2.5 the meaning is probably 'the dry land' and in 2.6 we are not sure.
Thus already 'eretz' can mean 'the whole world including land and sea' and the 'dry land', for ancient man did not have a multiplicity of words to choose from and his thinking was limited to his environment. He had not become too exact in his expressions. His words conveyed ideas, but not with the exactness of modern language.
In Genesis 12.1 Abram is told by God to go to 'a land (eretz) that I will show you'. Here the meaning of eretz is a particular area of land in contrast to other areas of land. This is a third (and the predominant) meaning of eretz. Even today the Jews see themselves as 'the people of the land (eretz)'. So eretz refers generally to land, and the wider meaning must be decided from its context.
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