So, if the Biblical point of predestination is true, why is not reasonable to say that in the very least, God does not love those who are not predestined?
I think a better understanding of "predestination" and "free will" is required before this can be properly understood. We are told right from the beginning of the story that God has given us the ability to choose. It began when He gave a single command and the human discovered how to distrust His advice. So the human has been battling with free choice ever since, this is why we each must choose right from wrong all our lives, because we are agents of free will. Some of us will choose to be selfish as Adam and Eve were, but some of us will choose to be selfless as Jesus was.
God knows who is who, this is how God is able to know who is saved even before they make the decision to accept salvation. How does God know something that hasn't already happened? Because God is the creator of the world, it is His masterpiece and we are told that He knows every single hair on our head and every grain of sand on the shore. With today's knowledge we can safely presume that He knows every atom, so there is literally nothing that He doesn't know.
With that in mind, and the particular problem of sin in His world, trying to balance every person's sense of contentment while there are people who work iniquity resulting in suffering, chaos and general aggravation, it would seem fair for Him to hate those who are uncooperative with His law - ie "workers of iniquity". Whether atheism qualifies as a "work of iniquity" is probably not fair, since there are many reasons why someone might have lost their faith in God. Combine that with the contention that believers show as they look down their nose at atheist's, and we get some rather aching souls.
So JGG, now I will address your OP, I hope I can say something that will help you feel comforted by God's justice:
From KJV:
Psalm 53:1 - The fool hath said in his heart, "There is no God." Corrupt are they, and have done abominable iniquity: there is none that doeth good.
Is this verse saying that all those who say "there is no God" are fools? Or is it saying that there is a particular type of person who is a fool, who has said "there is no God"? Does this mean that every atheist automatically qualifies as a fool? I hope your logic doesn't contest mine. Let's look how it was said in the interlinear translation:
Psalm 53:1 - he says decadent one in heart of him there is no Elohim they are corrupt and they are abhorrent iniquity there is no one doing of good.
Again this passage is describing a "decadent one". Are you a "decadent one"? Is it fair to say that all atheist's are "decadent ones"? I don't think so. I think when king David wrote this, he must have had a particular type of person in mind, and if he had known you as well as I have come to know you, I don't think he would be writing about you in this manner. I can show a number of verses that I would use to describe you but let us not digress.
And what does God think of fools and those who do iniquity?
Why you think these people qualify as speakers of truth? I think you need to develop a better sense of taste. Just my opinion.
Why would I believe in a God who hates me for not believing in Him? What would happen if my faith faltered? Would God sort of hate me?
You shouldn't believe in a God who hates you, which is why you need to ask God for wisdom when reading His word. Not everyone is capable of seeing light when they read the bible, some people see darkness. If you are only going to rely on the wisdom of your fellow man it will perish like our bones. If you are serious about knowing the light of Christ you will need to literally ask for it from God.
Psalm 5:5 - not they shall station themselves ones boasting to in front of eyes of you you hate all of ones contriving of lawlessness.
It certainly seems likely that God hates "workers of iniquity" and the fools who puff themselves up, so proud to contest Him. If you still can't visualize it, ask yourself how much you love a prickle in your finger.