sheina
Born Crucified
- Mar 30, 2007
- 1,042
- 188
- Faith
- Baptist
- Marital Status
- Married
- Politics
- US-Republican
Well, you could have fooled me!That was in English.
Scripture should answer the question.A lot of people come to an 'understanding' of scripture. So when asked a question they may answer by posting scripture only, as if that answers the question
2 Timothy 3:16 All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:
2 Timothy 3:17 That the man of God may be perfect, throughly furnished unto all good works.
More than likely, it is not "their" interpretation. Did you ever stop to think that the Holy Spirit just might be interpreting the Scripture through that person? After all, ALL Scripture is given by inspiration of God (2 Tim. 3:16) and no prophecy of Scripture is of any 'private interpretation' (2 Peter 1:20)They do this because for them their interpretation of scripture just 'is' what they think it is.
That is your own opinion, which is YOUR own 'private interpretation' of what that Scripture means. Since you obviously don't believe in Sola Scriptura, by what standard do you base this 'private interpretation'?I pointed out an example of someone citing scripture about the word. That person supports sola scriptura because of this they just assume that the text they cited about the 'word' simply means the written word. Unfortunately it doesn't mean that at all... certainly not to me.
That doesn't make any sense. What do you mean by "as if it just means something 100% apparent doesn't work"?Simply citing the verses of the Bible as if it just means something 100% apparent doesn't work.
There is nothing wrong with citing verses in the Bible when one is attempting to explain something biblical.
Yes, they certainly do. That's why we have so many false teachings flying around.People interpret it differently.
Upvote
0