Who controlled the land prior to the establishment of Israel? In other words, who could have simply told the people there to leave whenever they decided because they were in charge? Also, who TOLD the people to leave anyway?
The British mandatory administration, and before that, the Ottomans. Being in charge and having the power to dispossess does not confer legality onto it.
As for who told the Palestinians to leave, it's relevant because? Assume for the sake of argument that all Palestinians left without being forced in any way. How would that invalidate their basic rights such as right to citizenship? Leaving your place of residence temporarily is no legal basis for revocation of such rights.
Jews still lived in Israel. This odd myth that the Palestinians were the only people around is laughable.
A myth that is a strawman hardly anyone is even suggesting. A myth just as laughable as the idea that the Palestinians would almost entirely be recent immigrants with no connection to the land. Now, how does a continuous presence of one group in a land imply anything about the individual rights of other people there not of that group?
Egypt and Syria told the Palestinians not to agree to the two state solution originally proposed, then told them not to accept citizenship because they were convinced they would beat the Israelis. When that failed, they didn't seem to interested in allowing the refugees into their country, even though they caused the problem.
As for what Egypt and Syria told the Palestinians, it is irrelevant with regards to their rights. If an individual Palestinian would specifically have rejected an explicit offer of citizenship, then there'd be a case for denying him it. As for whatever Syria and Egypt may "owe" the Palestinians, how does that in any way decrease Israeli liability? The fact still remains that the homes the Palestinian refugees were expelled from are within its borders, and the Palestinians citizens of the political entity that preceded Israel. The Palestinians are not responsible for the actions of the rulers of Syria and Egypt, and thus nothing they do can affect their rights in any way whatsoever.
Again, I don't contend that Israel has done nothing wrong, but this casting them as the big bad wolf against the helpless Palestinians is simply wrong and dishonest.
Which nobody on this thread has done. What's the point anyway of stating that all have blood on their hands? How does that invalidate claims arising from past transgressions?
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