• Starting today August 7th, 2024, in order to post in the Married Couples, Courting Couples, or Singles forums, you will not be allowed to post if you have your Marital status designated as private. Announcements will be made in the respective forums as well but please note that if yours is currently listed as Private, you will need to submit a ticket in the Support Area to have yours changed.

  • CF has always been a site that welcomes people from different backgrounds and beliefs to participate in discussion and even debate. That is the nature of its ministry. In view of recent events emotions are running very high. We need to remind people of some basic principles in debating on this site. We need to be civil when we express differences in opinion. No personal attacks. Avoid you, your statements. Don't characterize an entire political party with comparisons to Fascism or Communism or other extreme movements that committed atrocities. CF is not the place for broad brush or blanket statements about groups and political parties. Put the broad brushes and blankets away when you come to CF, better yet, put them in the incinerator. Debate had no place for them. We need to remember that people that commit acts of violence represent themselves or a small extreme faction.

Biblical Truth: Christ Jesus is not God.

Status
Not open for further replies.

PattyOfurniture

Senior Member
Aug 15, 2007
1,010
73
Florida
✟24,224.00
Gender
Male
Faith
Marital Status
Married
Politics
US-Others
"Firstborn" does not necessarily mean the one born first in chronological order, God even called the nation Israel his firstborn and Israel was not the first nation and it was not even born.
Exodus 4:22 And thou shalt say unto Pharaoh, Thus saith the LORD, Israel is my son, even my firstborn:

Deut 25:6 And it shall be, that the firstborn which she beareth shall succeed in the name of his brother which is dead, that his name be not put out of Israel.​
The second born takes the place of the firstborn who dies.
1 Chronicles 26:10 Also Hosah, of the children of Merari, had sons; Simri the chief, (for though he was not the firstborn, yet his father made him the chief;)

Psalms 89:27 Also I will make him [David] my firstborn, higher than the kings of the earth​
Another son was given the place of the firstborn, 1 Ch 26:10. David was not the firstborn but God called him that.
Jeremiah 31:9 They shall come with weeping, and with supplications will I lead them: I will cause them to walk by the rivers of waters in a straight way, wherein they shall not stumble: for I am a father to Israel, and Ephraim is my firstborn.​
God calls the tribe of Ephraim his firstborn. Ephraim was not the first tribe and was not born as a tribe.
Who cares about the "Chronological order"of the Birth,it admits Jesus was "Born" and a part of "creation"...LOL.now want to rephrase the questions where you say there were no "anti-trinitarian" in the Christian faith early on and where you said(LOL) there were no polythiesistic Religious beliefs to influence the early Church?....
you asked for it :)
 
Upvote 0

Der Alte

This is me about 1 yr. old. when FDR was president
Site Supporter
Aug 21, 2003
29,123
6,150
EST
✟1,148,291.00
Country
United States
Gender
Male
Faith
Baptist
Marital Status
Married
Politics
US-Others
youre kidding right?! LOL youre saying that no People(s) were polytheistic(such as yourself apparently) between 90-300 ad(which influenced the faith)?? and even funnier that no People(s)<Christians> were non-trinitarian between 90 ad -"late 19th century"???? rephrase the question please before i have to copy and paste all the proofs 1/2 the Night LOOOL Thank you

Please read my post and address what I said not what you might wish I had said. I said nothing about "polytheistic people" or "nontrinitarians." You made an assertion in this post.

57Magnum, make your best case to me in an attempt to defend a pagan triune-god please.
And I asked you to back it up. If you cannot read and understand my post I can try to make it simpler. If you cannot address the specific points I made let me know.
 
Upvote 0

Der Alte

This is me about 1 yr. old. when FDR was president
Site Supporter
Aug 21, 2003
29,123
6,150
EST
✟1,148,291.00
Country
United States
Gender
Male
Faith
Baptist
Marital Status
Married
Politics
US-Others
Who cares about the "Chronological order"of the Birth,it admits Jesus was "Born" and a part of "creation"...LOL.now want to rephrase the questions where you say there were no "anti-trinitarian" in the Christian faith early on and where you said(LOL) there were no polythiesistic Religious beliefs to influence the early Church?....
you asked for it
:)

Don't bother with the standard copy/pastes from your favorite anti-trin website. You are creating and trying to tear down a straw man of your own making.

There is NO, ZERO, NONE, NT verse which proves that Jesus was part of the creation. In the verses I posted God called the nation Israel and the tribe of Ephraim "firstborn," neither was first and neither was actually born. The title firstborn means preeminent.
 
Upvote 0

Blueberry2010

Newbie
Sep 19, 2010
8
0
✟22,618.00
Faith
Non-Denom
Marital Status
Single
I totally agree with this statement, thus Jesus was fully man and fully God. In fact, if He wasn't more than man, He couldn't have done what He did. blameless here would mean without sin, which would mean holding to the entire law, never breaking the law. So what law do you think Jesus broke that made Him less than blameless, when we are told He obeyed the entire law.

I am not arguing that Jesus broke a law, but that God could still use Jesus to provide a means of salvation if he broke one (though the situation and means would have to be different). Some passages in the Pauline epistles state the Jesus was without sin; thus I believe that Jesus did not sin because I have no reason to question Paul's understading in light of the available scriptural evidence.

I am not questioning the validity of the passages, but I am wondering if you know of texts by other authors making this claim. (What I am getting at is if Paul had never been converted, could you make the same strong arugment?) I am slowly trying to go through some of the other New Testament books again, but I was wondering if you have a striking text offhand since you seem to be very well versed.

I realize that what scripture we, we have; however, I would find it odd if Paul were the only one to mention it and he never followed Jesus during Christ's lifetime. I only mention this from a logical/intellectual standpoint to see how you/we would fashion our beliefs in the absence of conversion and ministry of Paul.


Possible though means that you don't just make excuses (talking non trinitarians in general not you specifically) It means you listen, learn, and consider the possible. Just like the above, it means that you consider the possible that Jesus was fully man and fully God and that satisfies the problem of blameless, so look deeper from there and see if it is indeed consistent with scripture. does this mean you believe deity of Jesus, just a different deity? I'm confused now. so if the nature, what makes you assume He was not God.

I may at some point revert back to a Trinitarian point of view, but as of now I see Jesus as a perfect messenger and servant of God rather than as God himself. I certainly admit that it's possible for Jesus to be a part of God, but I don't believe that is the case because Jesus is focused on and characterizes his work as doing the will of the Father. To me, that makes the case for a nondivine view of Jesus also possible. I’m also not quite sure what you’re getting at here about making excuses.


No other man has or will according to scripture have this nature, how then was Jesus able to have it and still not be God. If His glory is beyond what man can contain, it would take a God/man to contain His nature would it not?

Because God gave it to Jesus is my position. If this is the case, even though I believe Jesus did not sin I don't think I am required to believe that he is also God. I only have to consider it in light of all of the available scriptural evidence.

you have been shown many scriptures that show Jesus claim to be God and many scriptures where He claimed to be man, that pretty much leaves us as fully man and fully God.

I stated this earlier-- I am unaware of a scripture where Jesus claims to be fully God. If he did, then I no longer have a viable argument.


Whether you believe the scripture or not is a different matter.

I do believe the scriptures and argue from them. I really don't see why one would make Christian claims or care about the theology if one does not at least believe they are generally acurate. If you don't believe in the scriptures or Jesus, that can be perfectly rational but it ultimately has nothing to do with a Christian should believe.

I can possibly see how people would believe that the apostles' letters to the churches could contain some misunderstandings in doctrine or instruction. However, to make that claim, one needs a counterargument for why a particular author in a particular instance is mistaken. Along this line of logic (though I am not arguing for it), would conflicting views among the apostles' letter present a logical case against the validity of Christianity? I would argue that it generally does not because men can have a slightly different view of the same truth with the essential message and purpose of Christianity being changed.


not really diminished His deity as limited His glory...look at it this way, my personhood is not diminished by my being on the forum, but the full extent of my personality is diminished here. Similarly, deity was not diminished by Jesus being here, but the glory of that deity was. because if you don't believe that Jesus was God in flesh form, how do you know what you are believing in?

I mean no disrespect, but I think you know the answer to the last question. One believes what one believes. Just because a belief doesn't meet your expectation does not make it impossible to have a different but sincere belief (whether right or wrong)? Are you meaning to say how can one claim to believe the Bible, and then not actually do so because you hold that the scriptural evidence for Jesus divinity is beyond argument?

In order for the salvation described in scripture to be fulfilled, it was necessary for God to show us how to live. He did this by becoming a man and living a blameless life before us. If you don't believe this, then your belief in Jesus is, 1. a belief in the power of man over the power of God. 2. a belief that dismisses the need for God and thus a love for Him. 3. a belief that dismisses the love of God for a lost world. 4. a belief that dismisses the salvation offered and the sacrifice of that offer. etc. IOW's it isn't scriptural at all, and it like any other religion out there that seeks to live for self by oppressing others. I'm still learning but I still don't understand all of what you are saying[/quote]

I cannot agree with much in this paragraph; what are you basing this upon? On option #1, how does the position of a nondivine Jesus show the power of man over God-- especially if one argues (as I do) that God sent Jesus to the world and that Jesus obeyed God's command. On option #2/3, I think you're extending your own belief in Jesus as divine to preclude anyone from arguing that God has shown love to a lost world. Can one believe that God shows love to a lost world without believing in Jesus; I think most religions do that in one way or another.

Not believing in your Christian perspective or another Christian perspective at all does not dismiss the need for God or the belief thereof. It (the belief) may in actually fail to accept a divine truth, but that does not mean one believes God is unnecessary. On option #4, I believe that one can reasonably believe in the sacrifice and salvation that came through Jesus without establishing his divinity; however, I can certainly see why you need to make this argument if you believe that the sacrifice of Jesus HAD to be divine as opposed to WAS divine.

I am not following your argument for a nondivine Jesus implying a lack of belief in God's love for a lost world. If God had not sent Jesus to the world but instead sent prophets as in the days of the Israelites or worked through ordinary men without the use of prophets, do you believe that God would be failing to show love for a lost world? I certainly do not.

I strongly disagree with your last characterization of other religions. How do other religions SEEK to oppress others (even if in your mind or mine they result in future oppression/punishment)? I think your statement about the scripture requirements is post de facto as opposed to being previously foretold or logically inescapable based on previous scripture. Though you may be scripturally/actually right, I don't know if you are using proper logic when it comes to the scriptural requirements for salvation. In my mind most of the requirements for salvation are told in the New Testament and are telling of the way of salvation that HAS come as opposed to the way of salvation that HAD to come. (Thoughts on this?) Thank you for asking some excellent questions and teaching me more as I go along.
 
Upvote 0

Blueberry2010

Newbie
Sep 19, 2010
8
0
✟22,618.00
Faith
Non-Denom
Marital Status
Single
I totally agree with this statement, thus Jesus was fully man and fully God. In fact, if He wasn't more than man, He couldn't have done what He did. blameless here would mean without sin, which would mean holding to the entire law, never breaking the law. So what law do you think Jesus broke that made Him less than blameless, when we are told He obeyed the entire law.

I am not arguing that Jesus broke a law, but that God could still use Jesus to provide a means of salvation if he broke one (though that might make Jesus work more in line with other prophets who showed the way of God). Some passages in the Pauline epistles seem to state the Jesus was without sin; thus I believe that Jesus did not sin. I am not questioning the validity of the passages, but I am wondering if you know of texts by other authors making this claim. I am slowly trying to go through some of the other New Testament books again, but I was wondering if you have a striking text offhand since you seem to be very well versed.

I realize that what scripture we, we have; however, I would find it odd if Paul were the only one to mention it and he never followed Jesus during Christ's lifetime. I only mention this from a logical/intellectual standpoint to see how you/we would fashion our beliefs in the absence of conversion and ministry of Paul.


Possible though means that you don't just make excuses (talking non trinitarians in general not you specifically) It means you listen, learn, and consider the possible. Just like the above, it means that you consider the possible that Jesus was fully man and fully God and that satisfies the problem of blameless, so look deeper from there and see if it is indeed consistent with scripture. does this mean you believe deity of Jesus, just a different deity? I'm confused now. so if the nature, what makes you assume He was not God.

I may at some point revert back to a Trinitarian point of view, but as of now I see Jesus as a perfect messenger and servant of God rather than as God himself. I certainly admit that it's possible for Jesus to be a part of God, but I don't believe that is the case because Jesus is focused on and characterizes his work as doing the will of the Father. To me, that makes the case for a nondivine view of Jesus also possible. I’m also not quite sure what you’re getting at here about making excuses.


No other man has or will according to scripture have this nature, how then was Jesus able to have it and still not be God. If His glory is beyond what man can contain, it would take a God/man to contain His nature would it not?

Because God gave it to Jesus is my position. If this is the case, even though I believe Jesus did not sin I don't think I am required to believe that he is also God. I only have to consider it in light of all of the available scriptural evidence.

you have been shown many scriptures that show Jesus claim to be God and many scriptures where He claimed to be man, that pretty much leaves us as fully man and fully God.

I stated this earlier-- I am unaware of a scripture where Jesus claims to be fully God. If he did, then I no longer have a viable argument.


Whether you believe the scripture or not is a different matter.

I do believe the scriptures and argue from them. I really don't see why one would make Christian claims or care about the theology if one does not at least believe they are generally acurate. If you don't believe in the scriptures or Jesus, that can be perfectly rational but it ultimately has nothing to do with a Christian should believe.

I can possibly see how people would believe that the apostles' letters to the churches could contain some misunderstandings in doctrine or instruction. However, to make that claim, one needs a counterargument for why a particular author in a particular instance is mistaken. Along this line of logic (though I am not arguing for it), would conflicting views among the apostles' letter present a logical case against the validity of Christianity? I would argue that it generally does not because men can have a slightly different view of the same truth with the essential message and purpose of Christianity being changed.


not really diminished His deity as limited His glory...look at it this way, my personhood is not diminished by my being on the forum, but the full extent of my personality is diminished here. Similarly, deity was not diminished by Jesus being here, but the glory of that deity was. because if you don't believe that Jesus was God in flesh form, how do you know what you are believing in?

I mean no disrespect, but I think you know the answer to the last question. One believes what one believes. Just because a belief doesn't meet your expectation does not make it impossible to have a different but sincere belief (whether right or wrong)? Are you meaning to say how can one claim to believe the Bible, and then not actually do so because you hold that the scriptural evidence for Jesus divinity is beyond argument?

In order for the salvation described in scripture to be fulfilled, it was necessary for God to show us how to live. He did this by becoming a man and living a blameless life before us. If you don't believe this, then your belief in Jesus is, 1. a belief in the power of man over the power of God. 2. a belief that dismisses the need for God and thus a love for Him. 3. a belief that dismisses the love of God for a lost world. 4. a belief that dismisses the salvation offered and the sacrifice of that offer. etc. IOW's it isn't scriptural at all, and it like any other religion out there that seeks to live for self by oppressing others. I'm still learning but I still don't understand all of what you are saying[/quote]

I cannot agree with much in this paragraph; what are you basing this upon? On option #1, how does the position of a nondivine Jesus show the power of man over God-- especially if one argues (as I do) that God sent Jesus to the world and that Jesus obeyed God's command. On option #2/3, I think you're extending your own belief in Jesus as divine to preclude anyone from arguing that God has shown love to a lost world. Can one believe that God shows love to a lost world without believing in Jesus; I think most religions do that in one way or another.

Not believing in your Christian perspective or another Christian perspective at all does not dismiss the need for God or the belief thereof. It (the belief) may in actually fail to accept a divine truth, but that does not mean one believes God is unnecessary. On option #4, I believe that one can reasonably believe in the sacrifice and salvation that came through Jesus without establishing his divinity; however, I can certainly see why you need to make this argument if you believe that the sacrifice of Jesus HAD to be divine as opposed to WAS divine.

I am not following your argument for a nondivine Jesus implying a lack of belief in God's love for a lost world. If God had not sent Jesus to the world but instead sent prophets as in the days of the Israelites or worked through ordinary men without the use of prophets, do you believe that God would be failing to show love for a lost world? I certainly do not.

I strongly disagree with your last characterization of other religions. How do other religions SEEK to oppress others (even if in your mind or mine they result in future oppression/punishment)? I think your statement about the scripture requirements is post de facto as opposed to being previously foretold or logically inescapable based on previous scripture. Though you may be scripturally/actually right, I don't know if you are using proper logic when it comes to the scriptural requirements for salvation. In my mind most of the requirements for salvation are told in the New Testament and are telling of the way of salvation that HAS come as opposed to the way of salvation that HAD to come. (Thoughts on this?) Thank you for asking some excellent questions. I too am learning more as I go, and I hope we can both grow closer to God through this discussion.

 
Upvote 0

PattyOfurniture

Senior Member
Aug 15, 2007
1,010
73
Florida
✟24,224.00
Gender
Male
Faith
Marital Status
Married
Politics
US-Others
Der Alter, you yourself have to notice you cant answer the fact that there were in fact many and i mean many anti-trinitarians Christians so much so that the Council at Nicea had to address the matter.and even funnier is the fact you wont address the fact i pointed out that everyone and i mean everyone knows the Greco-Roman Religious beliefs were all without exception polytheistic.why do you attempt a move away from the two first points you yourself introduced? LOL
ps,seems your "ten years in CF" haven't equipped you very well to deal with this topic...
 
Upvote 0

Mathetes the kerux

Tales of a Twice Born Man
Aug 1, 2004
6,619
286
47
Santa Rosa CA
Visit site
✟8,217.00
Faith
Pentecostal
Marital Status
Married
Politics
US-Others
Who cares about the "Chronological order"of the Birth,it admits Jesus was "Born" and a part of "creation"...LOL.now want to rephrase the questions where you say there were no "anti-trinitarian" in the Christian faith early on and where you said(LOL) there were no polythiesistic Religious beliefs to influence the early Church?....
you asked for it :)

,it admits Jesus was "Born" and a part of "creation".

No . . . firstborn is used of David in the psalms to attribute preimenence in stature.

John 1:3 makes Jesus NOT part of the created order . . . so there is either a contradiction . .. or the "firstborn of creation" needs to be seen in position of worth and not "literal becoming."
 
Upvote 0

razzelflabben

Contributor
Nov 8, 2003
25,818
2,503
65
Ohio
✟137,293.00
Faith
Non-Denom
Marital Status
Married
youre kidding right?! LOL youre saying that no People(s) were polytheistic(such as yourself apparently) between 90-300 ad(which influenced the faith)?? and even funnier that no People(s)<Christians> were non-trinitarian between 90 ad -"late 19th century"???? rephrase the question please before i have to copy and paste all the proofs 1/2 the Night LOOOL Thank you
actually I'm interested in evidence of pre "Christian" trinitarinaism as well. Most of the early religions worshiped multiple gods. This concept if pretty foreign to trinitarian belief. Trinitariansm is 1 God 3 forms, not many God's. In fact, trinitarian theology is usually pretty adament against multiple God's. So what evidence is there that trinity comes from other religions of the time when they believed many gods and trinity believes 1 God 3 forms? It's an awesome question, and wonderful challenge.
 
Upvote 0

razzelflabben

Contributor
Nov 8, 2003
25,818
2,503
65
Ohio
✟137,293.00
Faith
Non-Denom
Marital Status
Married
Who cares about the "Chronological order"of the Birth,it admits Jesus was "Born" and a part of "creation"...LOL.now want to rephrase the questions where you say there were no "anti-trinitarian" in the Christian faith early on and where you said(LOL) there were no polythiesistic Religious beliefs to influence the early Church?....
you asked for it :)
Actually scripture says that Jesus was both "born" and in existence before creation, which takes us back to a fully God fully man concept being clearly presented in scripture. But the trinity evidence I am anxious for is the 1 God view residing in other religions of history. What evidence is there to support this idea?
 
Upvote 0
S

Superfast

Guest
BTW Blueberry2010,please show us any verse in any version of any Bible saying "God the Son" or better yet "Jesus fully God,Fully man" LOL
God Bless
I suppose The son of God might appear to read God the son if one had dyslekia. That's the only logical way I can conceive of for someone to get God the son out of Son of God. But then I'm just a logical dude. Illogically, there are gazillions of possibilities.

Here's a thought, if an illogical conclusion, such as 3 is one, is the only possible conclusion froma logical intepretation and that is truth, then wouldn't an illogical intepretation that results in an illogical conclusion likewise be valid? Both can be justified with god's logic is superior to ours. If 3 is one can be justified with gods logic is superior ot ours, then wouldn't intepreting john 1.14 to mean Jesus is gomer pyle likewise be justifiable for the same reasons, that "God's logic is superior to ours so Jesus can be Gomer Pyle." seems logical to me. Hey any nonsensical illogical totally lame argument can be justified with that, God's logic is superior to ours.


To make it short

if

logic intepretation = illogical conclusiont is true, then

illogical interpretation = illogical cocnlusion is also true, then

illogical interpretaion = logical conclusion is true because

all are true because God's logic is superior to ours.
so in conclusion, lets all just turn our brains off cause God's logic is superior to ours so what's the point trying to figure out what God means in his word.

course we who have the truth don't opperate that way, if we who have the truth get an illogical conclusion from an intepretation, it is a red flag to us that our intepretation is incorrect and it's back to the drawing boards until we come up with an intepretation taht results in a logical cocnlusion. but that is nonsense to most people
 
Last edited:
Upvote 0

razzelflabben

Contributor
Nov 8, 2003
25,818
2,503
65
Ohio
✟137,293.00
Faith
Non-Denom
Marital Status
Married
I am not arguing that Jesus broke a law, but that God could still use Jesus to provide a means of salvation if he broke one (though the situation and means would have to be different).
according to OT scripture, and NT for that matter, any sin at all, even one that to us seems insignificant would separate us from God, thus rendering the sacrifice meaningless.
Some passages in the Pauline epistles state the Jesus was without sin; thus I believe that Jesus did not sin because I have no reason to question Paul's understading in light of the available scriptural evidence.
agreed, but the problem remains that you think some sin would be acceptable, scripture is pretty clear that is not the case.
I am not questioning the validity of the passages, but I am wondering if you know of texts by other authors making this claim. (What I am getting at is if Paul had never been converted, could you make the same strong arugment?) I am slowly trying to go through some of the other New Testament books again, but I was wondering if you have a striking text offhand since you seem to be very well versed.
not quite sure what text you are looking for....one that supports fully God and fully man, or one that supports Jesus being without sin...? Help me out and I'm see what I can find for you.
I realize that what scripture we, we have; however, I would find it odd if Paul were the only one to mention it and he never followed Jesus during Christ's lifetime. I only mention this from a logical/intellectual standpoint to see how you/we would fashion our beliefs in the absence of conversion and ministry of Paul.
Paul, just like Jesus was a Jew, which means that the first place we go for understanding of belief is the Jewish law. That is why I suggested studying the OT sacrifices. In Jewish law, all sin, no matter how insignificant it seemed to us, separates us from God and that separation means that God cannot "look" upon us. The blood of a spotless lamb (sorry for the short lesson, I'm trying to keep posts manageable) covered over the sin so that God could not see that sin anymore, thus in fellowship once again with Him. When Jesus came, He was that spotless lamb, so much so that when He died, taking on the sin of the world, God turned His back on Jesus and we see Jesus crying out, "My God, My God why have you forsaken me." God could not look upon Jesus because in that moment, Jesus took all our sins upon Himself. His blood, however, covers over those sin, hides them so to speak to that God can look upon us. But we have to apply that blood (go back to the ark of the covenant).

Now one more quick thing, the curtain that was torn in two, remember that part? The curtain in the temple separated the court yard from the holy of holies. The holy of holies was the seat of God and only a high priest could enter, apply the blood to the "mercy seat", to hide our sins. Access to God was only possible through "royal" bloodlines. The high priest. When the curtain tore, it exposed the holy of holies, giving all men access to the throne of God. But that was only possible through the blood sacrifice of both blameless and royal bloodlines. therefore, in order for Jesus to be that sacrifical lamb, He had to be both without sin, and of royal bloodlines. thus the long portions of scripture that talk about His geneology. I purpose to you that that geneology is only part of the true royal nature of the sacrifical lamb.
I may at some point revert back to a Trinitarian point of view, but as of now I see Jesus as a perfect messenger and servant of God rather than as God himself. I certainly admit that it's possible for Jesus to be a part of God, but I don't believe that is the case because Jesus is focused on and characterizes his work as doing the will of the Father. To me, that makes the case for a nondivine view of Jesus also possible. I’m also not quite sure what you’re getting at here about making excuses.
many people, make excuses for their beliefs. My admitting that you could be wrong, you are starting out ahead of most.

As to the rest of this, something I still don't understand about the mindset...how could Jesus be a perfect messenger, a perfect servant fo God if He was just a man and nothing more? I also don't understand the mindset as it relates to deity, if His father was God, wouldn't that also make Him at least part God? Or do you think this is just figurative as in God is all of our FAthers? Let's see another way to say it, do you believe in virgin birth?
Because God gave it to Jesus is my position. If this is the case, even though I believe Jesus did not sin I don't think I am required to believe that he is also God. I only have to consider it in light of all of the available scriptural evidence.
I'm all for scriptural evidence and I would love for someone to show convincing evidence that Jesus could not be fully God and fully man according to scripture, but that is a different matter. What I don't get it how or why God would give that power to a man and not change Him into more than just a man? Let me see, another way to say it....If I take my old Buick and soup it up, it becomes a hot rod. How would it be possible to take a man, soup Him up and still only have a man? Wouldn't He be some kind of super something, like supernatural God?
I stated this earlier-- I am unaware of a scripture where Jesus claims to be fully God. If he did, then I no longer have a viable argument.
are you stumbling over the word fully God, or are you not reading in context the scriptures that are posted about His claim of deity? I can't provide something if I am not sure what you don't understand...
I do believe the scriptures and argue from them. I really don't see why one would make Christian claims or care about the theology if one does not at least believe they are generally acurate. If you don't believe in the scriptures or Jesus, that can be perfectly rational but it ultimately has nothing to do with a Christian should believe.
awesome, so we both use scripture as authority on this matter. Therefore, the passages that claim Jesus to be a man, must be truth, right? As well, the passages that claim Jesus to be God, must also be truth, right? So the only consistent in scripture then, is that Jesus was both God and man, not either or....why do so many people think God is an either or kind of God? Scripture is full of the both ands of God.
I can possibly see how people would believe that the apostles' letters to the churches could contain some misunderstandings in doctrine or instruction. However, to make that claim, one needs a counterargument for why a particular author in a particular instance is mistaken. Along this line of logic (though I am not arguing for it), would conflicting views among the apostles' letter present a logical case against the validity of Christianity? I would argue that it generally does not because men can have a slightly different view of the same truth with the essential message and purpose of Christianity being changed.
truth in scripture is an absolute. Let me explain what I mean. The early church (apostles included) believed that there was 1 Spirit and therefore only 1 interpretation, all others were false. So to find that 1 interpretation, they fasted and prayed until they were all in agreement. (something I often challenge people to do and they always refuse). In the case of tinitarian, we only have one possible interpretation, because there is one one spirit interpreting it, and only 1 God authoring it, and that God and HS are part of each other. So no, it can't contain misunderstanding doctrine, only truth. We may not understand it, but that is because we are not listening to the HS.
not really diminished His deity as limited His glory...look at it this way, my personhood is not diminished by my being on the forum, but the full extent of my personality is diminished here. Similarly, deity was not diminished by Jesus being here, but the glory of that deity was. because if you don't believe that Jesus was God in flesh form, how do you know what you are believing in?

I mean no disrespect, but I think you know the answer to the last question. One believes what one believes. Just because a belief doesn't meet your expectation does not make it impossible to have a different but sincere belief (whether right or wrong)? Are you meaning to say how can one claim to believe the Bible, and then not actually do so because you hold that the scriptural evidence for Jesus divinity is beyond argument?
read what I wrote again, I talked about how deity cannot diminish Him, only our perception of His glory. that has nothing at all to do with what one believes or doesn't belief, unless of course you want to believe that there can be no arguement against your personal beliefs. Logically speaking if (notice the word if) Jesus was God, it would limit His glory, not His deity. We know that man cannot look fully on God's glory, so limiting that glory is not a problem for God or scripture. To take the opinion that Jesus deity must someway diminish is God nature is a fallacy I am arguing. Has nothing at all to do with who is right and who is wrong, it has to do with what God's glory is and what we know of that glory from scripture, a scripture we both claim is the authority.

It would be wise, not to confuse me with other posters who refuse to accept that Jesus claimed to be human, He did, He also claimed to be God, which is our point of disagreement and I do not wish to convince you otherwise because that is not my job, that is God's job. But to discuss what that means to God's glory is in the scope of debate and as I explained, it does not diminish God in any way, it only limits His glory to something that man is capable of being around.
 
Upvote 0

razzelflabben

Contributor
Nov 8, 2003
25,818
2,503
65
Ohio
✟137,293.00
Faith
Non-Denom
Marital Status
Married
Part 2

I cannot agree with much in this paragraph; what are you basing this upon? On option #1, how does the position of a nondivine Jesus show the power of man over God[/quote] the power of man over God?????? man has no power over God, where are you getting this idea?
especially if one argues (as I do) that God sent Jesus to the world and that Jesus obeyed God's command.
on this we agree.
On option #2/3, I think you're extending your own belief in Jesus as divine to preclude anyone from arguing that God has shown love to a lost world. Can one believe that God shows love to a lost world without believing in Jesus; I think most religions do that in one way or another.
Jesus sacrifice is said to be our example, our demonstration of the depths of God's love. If Jesus was only a man, the depths of that love suddenly plummet into near nothingness.
Not believing in your Christian perspective or another Christian perspective at all does not dismiss the need for God or the belief thereof. It (the belief) may in actually fail to accept a divine truth, but that does not mean one believes God is unnecessary.
again what makes you think I said that the necessity of God is diminished? It seems you are reading into the post things that are not there.
On option #4, I believe that one can reasonably believe in the sacrifice and salvation that came through Jesus without establishing his divinity; however, I can certainly see why you need to make this argument if you believe that the sacrifice of Jesus HAD to be divine as opposed to WAS divine.
not sure what you mean or how it relates to what I said, please explain in more detail.
I am not following your argument for a nondivine Jesus implying a lack of belief in God's love for a lost world. If God had not sent Jesus to the world but instead sent prophets as in the days of the Israelites or worked through ordinary men without the use of prophets, do you believe that God would be failing to show love for a lost world? I certainly do not.
the entire bible is a book of love, it is God's love to a lost and dieing world. So the simple answer is no, everything God does shows some aspect of love. However, the heights and depth and bredth of love is expressed in the sacrifical love of Jesus coming and is shown through the list I provided that show the humility of Christ, the mass of things He gave to some to earth as a man, not as God. Just to be clear, we are talking about biblical love here, right (I am) a love with goes beyond our ability to mimic. It is a love that at it's root, says that love is the act of humility in which one puts the needs of others above self. Notice the needs of others are above self and that it is an act of humility, both are vital to understanding the beginnings of biblical love. Thus when we see the humility of Jesus, through the act of God coming as a man, the power and thrust of Gods' love is more than any act of man can possibly be. Thus it is a clearer, more powerful picture of God's amazing love, to understand trinity than to claim otherwise.
I strongly disagree with your last characterization of other religions. How do other religions SEEK to oppress others (even if in your mind or mine they result in future oppression/punishment)? I think your statement about the scripture requirements is post de facto as opposed to being previously foretold or logically inescapable based on previous scripture. Though you may be scripturally/actually right, I don't know if you are using proper logic when it comes to the scriptural requirements for salvation. In my mind most of the requirements for salvation are told in the New Testament and are telling of the way of salvation that HAS come as opposed to the way of salvation that HAD to come. (Thoughts on this?) Thank you for asking some excellent questions and teaching me more as I go along.
It seems this paragraph has a few different things in it, so let's first look at oppression. Even the Pharisees and Sadducies were repremanded by Christ for oppressing the people. Their goals were self motivated whether for power, money, pride, or something else, oppression results when we live for self not others, not God. This does not mean they never did anything for others, of course they did, but it was not done out of love. (again biblical love, not worldly love) God is all about love, Love is His very nature. In fact, the God of the bible is the only god I can think of whose purpose for worship is not about appeasement.

As to salvation, a fully understanding is based on both the OT and NT in that both tell us important things about God and salvation. I went into more detail above and this post is very long so if you need more, we can discuss more, in the meantime, I'll assume it is covered.

Thanks
 
Upvote 0

Der Alte

This is me about 1 yr. old. when FDR was president
Site Supporter
Aug 21, 2003
29,123
6,150
EST
✟1,148,291.00
Country
United States
Gender
Male
Faith
Baptist
Marital Status
Married
Politics
US-Others
Der Alter, you yourself have to notice you cant answer the fact that there were in fact many and i mean many anti-trinitarians Christians so much so that the Council at Nicea had to address the matter.

There were and are polytheistic religions. That is irrelevant! The point I am addressing is your assertion in this post.

357Magnum, make your best case to me in an attempt to defend a pagan triune-god please.
My challenge again please show me credible, verifiable, historical evidence for a pagan triune/trinity or even a triad, in any society which could have influenced the early church?

and even funnier is the fact you wont address the fact i pointed out that everyone and i mean everyone knows the Greco-Roman Religious beliefs were all without exception polytheistic.

Irrelevant! See my reply above.

why do you attempt a move away from the two first points you yourself introduced? LOL
ps,seems your "ten years in CF" haven't equipped you very well to deal with this topic...

I have not moved away from anything! You are avoiding my two points and trying to change the subject. Here is my post again. I have highlighted the two specific points.


[ . . . ]Many, many people have made the accusation that the Triune god is pagan. I have been asking for a long, long time for any credible, verifiable, historical evidence for a trinity, or even a triad of of gods, in any society which could have influenced the early church, ca. 90 AD through 300 AD? [ . . . ] By this I mean something written at or near the time of the events in question, by participants or direct eyewitnesses. There were no computers or internet in the 1st thru 3rd centuries so the standard copy/paste from anti-trinitarians-&#1103;-us.com©, or a clone, is NOT evidence.
[ . . . ]
My second challenge is show me credible, verifiable, historical evidence for any organized group of believers, by any name, which believed and practiced as you do, between 90 AD, when the NT was completed and the late 19th century when virtually all anti-trinitarian religious groups came into existence, e.g. JW, LDS, SDA, UU, OP, WWCG, anti-Trin MJ, kristadelfian, etc?
 
Upvote 0

Der Alte

This is me about 1 yr. old. when FDR was president
Site Supporter
Aug 21, 2003
29,123
6,150
EST
✟1,148,291.00
Country
United States
Gender
Male
Faith
Baptist
Marital Status
Married
Politics
US-Others
I suppose The son of God might appear to read God the son if one had dyslekia. That's the only logical way I can conceive of for someone to get God the son out of Son of God. But then I'm just a logical dude. Illogically, there are gazillions of possibilities.

Here's a thought, if an illogical conclusion, such as 3 is one, is the only possible conclusion froma logical intepretation and that is truth, then wouldn't an illogical intepretation that results in an illogical conclusion likewise be valid? Both can be justified with god's logic is superior to ours. If 3 is one can be justified with gods logic is superior ot ours, then wouldn't intepreting john 1.14 to mean Jesus is gomer pyle likewise be justifiable for the same reasons, that "God's logic is superior to ours so Jesus can be Gomer Pyle." seems logical to me. Hey any nonsensical illogical totally lame argument can be justified with that, God's logic is superior to ours.[ . . . ]
so in conclusion, lets all just turn our brains off cause God's logic is superior to ours so what's the point trying to figure out what God means in his word.

The problem with your argument is, there is no logic in it, Jesus is addressed or referred to as God at least 62 times in the NT, see link below. Jesus is never called or referred to as Gomer Pyle, or any other silly thing someone thinks up.

course we who have the truth don't opperate that way, if we who have the truth get an illogical conclusion from an intepretation, it is a red flag to us that our intepretation is incorrect and it's back to the drawing boards until we come up with an intepretation taht results in a logical cocnlusion. but that is nonsense to most people

Since Jesus is called or referred to as God, at least 62 times, and he is the son, it is logical to refer to him as God the son.

My previous post, 36 N.T. verses which address or refer to Jesus as God

My previous post 26 O.T. verses which address YHWH, which refer to Jesus as God, in the N.T.

My previous posts, 4 N.T. verses which address or refer to the Holy Spirit, as God.
 
Upvote 0

Der Alte

This is me about 1 yr. old. when FDR was president
Site Supporter
Aug 21, 2003
29,123
6,150
EST
✟1,148,291.00
Country
United States
Gender
Male
Faith
Baptist
Marital Status
Married
Politics
US-Others
Der Alter,
Not only do your "37 NT verses which refer or address Jesus as God" NOT DO SO,they repeatedly call Jesus the "IMAGE" or "Son of God" only,what am i missing here?

Typical! You are missing everything! Ignore all 62 passages of scripture I posted and make an assertion without backing it up. None of the verses I listed "call Jesus the 'IMAGE' or 'Son of God'" So you are missing everything. Want to try again? I can understand you not being able to address these verses. In the 7-8 years I have been posting them here nobody has made any reasonable attempt to address these verses. Once again,

My previous post, 36 N.T. verses which address or refer to Jesus as God

My previous post 26 O.T. verses which address YHWH, which refer to Jesus as God, in the N.T.

My previous posts, 4 N.T. verses which address or refer to the Holy Spirit, as God.

If you are going to try to address these verses, don't just say "They do not call Jesus God! Do not! Nuh Uh!" as you did. Read the verse, copy it into your response and show me how it does not address or refer to Jesus as God. For example John 20:28.
Joh 20:28 And Thomas answered and said unto him, My Lord and my God.​
The literal translation from the Greek is, "The Lord of me and the God of me." A devout Jew would never use the word "God" as an exclamation. And Jesus would have criticized Thomas instead of blessing him. It is written wrong in Greek to be an exclamation. If the expression "Oh my God" even existed in Greek it would be written &#969; &#952;&#949;&#959;&#962; &#956;&#959;&#965;, it is not, and it would not have the conjunction &#954;&#945;&#953;(and).
 
Upvote 0

Nemo Neem

1 John 4:7-12
May 16, 2010
336
32
Massachusetts, USA
Visit site
✟23,172.00
Gender
Male
Faith
Methodist
Marital Status
In Relationship
Politics
US-Republican
My challenge again please show me credible, verifiable, historical evidence for a pagan triune/trinity or even a triad, in any society which could have influenced the early church?

Actually, there is evidence to suggest that Jesus' story was inspired by the Greek god, Dionysus. Dionysus' story is very similar to Jesus'.

The opening salvo of debates concerning mythological parallels between Dionysus and the figure of the Christ in Christian theology can be traced to Friedrich Hölderlin, whose identification of Dionysus with Christ is most explicit in Brod und Wein (1800–1801) and Der Einzige (1801–1803). Modern scholars such as Martin Hengel, Barry Powell, and Peter Wick, among others, argue that Dionysian religion and Christianity have notable parallels.


They point to the symbolism of wine and the importance it held in the mythology surrounding both Dionysus and Jesus Christ;[38][39] Wick argues that the use of wine symbolism in the Gospel of John, including the story of the Marriage at Cana at which Jesus turns water into wine, was intended to show Jesus as superior to Dionysus.http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dionysus#cite_note-Wick_2004_179.E2.80.93198-39


The scene in The Bacchae wherein Dionysus appears before King Pentheus on charges of claiming divinity is compared to the New Testament scene of Jesus being interrogated by Pontius Pilate.http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dionysus#cite_note-40http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dionysus#cite_note-Wick_2004_179.E2.80.93198-39


Some scholars of comparative mythology also class both Dionysus and Jesus as representing an archetype of the "dying-and-returning god".[25] Powell, in particular, argues precursors to the Christian notion of transubstantiation can be found in Dionysian religion.http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dionysus#cite_note-Powell-41

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dionysus
 
Upvote 0

Mathetes the kerux

Tales of a Twice Born Man
Aug 1, 2004
6,619
286
47
Santa Rosa CA
Visit site
✟8,217.00
Faith
Pentecostal
Marital Status
Married
Politics
US-Others
Actually, there is evidence to suggest that Jesus' story was inspired by the Greek god, Dionysus. Dionysus' story is very similar to Jesus'.



Dionysus - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia

As with most of these accounts, it takes a LITTLE closer look to see if what they present REALLY holds water

Take the water to wine at a wedding ceremony written by Achilles Tatius.

The story is dated to between the 2nd and 6th Cent AD (probably about the 4th to 5th) . . . which means that the LIKELINESS is not that the NT John borrowed from them, but that they borrowed from the NT. As is the case with Mithras and many of the other Mystery Cults that people CLAIM had influence on Christian Scripture when IN FACT the truth is that the Christian stories PRE DATE the pagan stories . . . so that the liklihood is that they borrowed from us, not the inverse.

The FACT is that the Bacchean story CANNOT HAVE INFLUENCED THAT OF THE CHRISTIAN YESHUA.

:thumbsup:
 
Upvote 0

Der Alte

This is me about 1 yr. old. when FDR was president
Site Supporter
Aug 21, 2003
29,123
6,150
EST
✟1,148,291.00
Country
United States
Gender
Male
Faith
Baptist
Marital Status
Married
Politics
US-Others
Actually, there is evidence to suggest that Jesus' story was inspired by the Greek god, Dionysus. Dionysus' story is very similar to Jesus'.
The opening salvo of debates concerning mythological parallels between Dionysus and the figure of the Christ in Christian theology can be traced to Friedrich Hölderlin, whose identification of Dionysus with Christ is most explicit in Brod und Wein (1800–1801) and Der Einzige (1801–1803).Modern scholars such as Martin Hengel, Barry Powell, and Peter Wick, among others, argue that Dionysian religion and Christianity have notable parallels.

They point to the symbolism of wine and the importance it held in the mythology surrounding both Dionysus and Jesus Christ;[38][39] Wick argues that the use of wine symbolism in the Gospel of John, including the story of the Marriage at Cana at which Jesus turns water into wine, was intended to show Jesus as superior to Dionysus.

The scene in The Bacchae wherein Dionysus appears before King Pentheus on charges of claiming divinity is compared to the New Testament scene of Jesus being interrogated by Pontius Pilate.

Some scholars of comparative mythology also class both Dionysus and Jesus as representing an archetype of the "dying-and-returning god".[25] Powell, in particular, argues precursors to the Christian notion of transubstantiation can be found in Dionysian religion.

Dionysus - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia

Perhaps you missed my request "credible, verifiable, historical evidence?" Any book written in the 19th-20th century does not constitute historical evidence. As noted by another member the Greek Dionysus myth is dated, "between the 2nd and 6th Cent AD (probably about the 4th to 5th)." That is why I phrased my request as I did because I have seen countless copy/pastes from books and websites dated in the 19th or 20th century. They usually name three random deities from a pagan pantheon and call it a "Trinity."
 
Upvote 0
Status
Not open for further replies.