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If God is responsible for the creation of evil, how can an infallible man know that his interpretation, if received from a perfectly all-powerful God, is not a deception?
If God is responsible for the creation of evil, how can an infallible man know that his interpretation, if received from a perfectly all-powerful God, is not a deception?
ESPECIALLY important for those (well, only one - the RCC) that insist that only ONE (itself) may authoritatively interpret Scripture and insist that one (self) is infallible/unaccountable in such.
In that case, it is IMPOSSIBLE to even ask if that one is wrong since that one declares that that one cannot be wrong and cannot be questioned: all must accept "with docility" whatever that one says. CCC 85, 87, etc.
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There are of course a "few" that refused to do soESPECIALLY important for those (well, only one - the RCC) that insist that only ONE (itself) may authoritatively interpret Scripture and insist that one (self) is infallible/unaccountable in such.
In that case, it is IMPOSSIBLE to even ask if that one is wrong since that one declares that that one cannot be wrong and cannot be questioned: all must accept "with docility" whatever that one says. CCC 85, 87, etc.
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First, we'd need to be convinced that God IS responsible for the "creation of evil."
Let me impart some profound wisdom upon you . . . if you don't mind.If God is responsible for the creation of evil, how can an infallible man know that his interpretation, if received from a perfectly all-powerful God, is not a deception?

This does not provide any value-added to my question. Again, how can an infallible man know when he is being deceived by a perfectly all-powerful God who has demonstrated His capacity for creating evil?
Albion, thanks for sharing your opinions, but until I am 100% certain that your opinions are infallibly correct, I for one am not about to stake my eternal destiny on ANY of them. And anyone else around here would likewise be a fool to stake his eternal destiny on anything less than 100% certainty. The goal must be 100%.
It's not incorrect and it's not "obviously" incorrect. What is obvious, is that yo don't know the difference between "infallible" and "inerrant." You don't, do you?Interesting opinion, but obviously incorrect.
No man is infallible, even if the Word of God is infallible.Consequently, God has an antidote to human error, in fact, God's antidote (inspiration), when fully administered by Him, is infallible and, by virtue of His infallibility, renders the recipient infallible.
That doesn't make Paul infallible.That's the difference between a seminary professor and Paul. When a seminary professor writes a book, it is almost certain to be full of errors. When Paul wrote Romans, there was NO POSSIBILITY of error (i.e., assuming God was fully administering inspiration at the moment which, in my opinion, He was).
And you tbink that when to show up at work is an "ethical" decision. What was that about "absurd" again?It fully informs me about all my decisions? Please. That's patently absurd. The Bible doesn't even tell me whether I should show up for work tomorrow.
No, none of us here except yourself knows the first thing about anything. Please fill us in--after you find out what "infallibility" means, of course.Ever heard of 911?

YEAH Albion. 38,000 infallible inspired groups CANNOT be one whit WRONG. No, it's NOT possible...that would NEVER happen. An 'inspired error?' What are you thinking Albion? They are ALL 100% certifiably RIGHT.
Every last one of 'em.

Who are you debating against with that strawman? I say that there is no reason to conclude (as some do) that every one of them must be wrong. I did not say that every one of them must be right.![]()
Please Albion. None of the groups in question THINK they are wrong. They are ALL following what they perceive to be 100% right.
Of course they do, but that has absolutely nothing to do with question of whether or not any of them CAN be right.
The proposition is normally stated like this--There are thousands of churches (of a category that the speaker exempts his own church from being part of), and they teach different things, THEREFORE, none of them CAN be correct.
In fact, that is a non-sequitur. There is no reason at all why one of them can't be correct.
And it doesn't matter one way or the other that all or most of them think they are correct. They don't, BTW, think they are infallibly correct, as the Roman Church does.
They merely think that they have gotten the message right. Why can't it be so that at least one has?
Well, that isn't the only possibility. It could be that one church is better at linguistics and Bible study, etc. and so comes up with the right interpretation that escapes all the others. You can't deny that this is possible.Oh, you mean only by unperceived CHANCE? That of ALL of these groups there may be a CHANCE that only ONE of them may be 100% right?
My answer is that you've misunderstood Jesus. But that aside, we still have the old, tired argument that the RCC makes about the multiplicity of non-RC churches PROVING somehow that none of them can know what the Bible means. It's that which I thought we were discussing.Let me put it this way. Jesus said "I AM THE TRUTH."
We can presume in that equation that ONLY JESUS is TRUTH, being 100% RIGHT.
So are ANY of them 100% Jesus? I say no.
Again, it isn't relevant that they think they are correct. All that matters is whether any of them can be.Oh come on Albion. NONE of them are following what they consider to even be 1% wrong.
That's a totally different issue.Because Jesus took the position of 100% TRUTH only to HIMSELF.
Well, that isn't the only possibility. It could be that one church is better at linguistics and Bible study, etc. and so comes up with the right interpretation that escapes all the others. You can't deny that this is possible.
But OTOH, I'll take mere chance, too.
It doesn't matter how the truth is come by, just so long as it is.
The claim that none of these many churches can know the truth is just that--that they CANNOT know it, not merely that they DON'T know it.