What is also interesting in this link is:
Blacks represent only 12 percent of the total U.S. population, but made up about 70 percent of gonorrhea cases and almost half of all chlamydia and syphilis cases in 2007
so blacks are disproportionately affected by STDs. Does this fact make racism acceptable?
Why not?
The problem is, by your standards, suggesting that blacks have any control over their urge to have sex would be tantamount to racism. Any community push to increase awareness of STD's and how to avoid them in a black neighborhood would be racist. Any religious organization preaching against irresponsible sex and citing as a risk the danger of STD's would actually be racist because, after all, STD's affect blacks disproportionately.
All of the accusations of bigotry that spill across these boards are spurious when it deals with the gay agenda. Homosexuality is a behavior. It is referred to as such by many psychiatric papers. It is not a race or gender. No one so far has even presented a cogent argument for comparing the regulation of any behavior with laws specifically singling out people of various colors.
It's demonstrably a false comparison, and I think conclusions can be drawn from the number of times the same people make accusations that cannot be substantiated and post information about specific studies that can be verified as untrue, and who indeed will continue to support their untrue statements even when supplied with substantive evidence that they are wrong. Indeed, apparently they are even willing to imply someone is lying when they present the evidence that they are wrong.
http://www.christianforums.com/t7358406-24/#post51416556
http://www.christianforums.com/t7358406-26/#post51417594
Claims have been made about all of these that are demonstrably untrue in an attempt to discredit them before anyone even bothers to read them. Posts pile up, and by the time anyone comes along to look, they are buried under a mountain of posts that people simply accept as true.
The second link, on this thread, the idea that if you calculate the number of gays it only samples .01% spread within a page or so of my posting it, whereas if you do the relatively simply math it takes to check that accusation, it is actually 1.7% rounding off. 33/1955. If you roll the gays and bisexuals together, it comes out exceedingly close to 9%. If anything, one might think that is over-representing bisexuals, not under-representing gays.
The assertion begs the question where you would ever get any statistics on the percentage of people who are gay or bisexual if any sample is decreed flawed on its face based on prior assumptions of what the makeup of the population is.
One thing is for certain, there is no shortage of reports indicating gays are comparatively promiscuous, yet we are constantly told otherwise.