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Speak lovingly of Mary

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Mary was given to a man to be legitemized of having Christ and thus Christ was a legitemate child. She had to be protected and so Joseph listened to the Angel and he took Mary to be his bettrothled spouse. The word wife is not there in the Greek as it says 'woman'.
So then you are saying that God told Joseph to take Mary as His wife to deceive people? To just make people believe she was married. Kind of like Room mates?
 
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You are missing the point again... It has nothing to do with Mary being "simple woman" rather with her calling. She was "set apart" or not? She accepted a calling from God and thus it would be less than impious to be "just another woman"....She was a special woman with a special calling from God. That ought to tell ya something. The reason she is not mentioned in the Epistles? Do you know why the Apostles wrote the Epistles? What was the skopos (purpose) of writting them?
Friend every one of Gods Children are set apart. For this is every true believers calling. :) For it is not in the flesh that any one including Mary is set apart but in the Spirit. The Epistles are written by God for doctrine correction and reproof so that those whom are Christs can be fully equipped. :)
 
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You read into things and twist things.. I say. No, it just that is the time when the Holy Spirit was sent to the Apostles. The Holy Spirit is forever present in its Chruch from then on....The Apostles were the ones sent out to evangelize and they were given many gifts among them was the knowledge of many languages....
All members of the body of Christ are given gifts. Not just the Apostles. The Holy Spirit was sent to all the believers not just the Apostles..
 
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Friend every one of Gods Children are set apart. For this is every true believers calling. :) For it is not in the flesh that any one including Mary is set apart but in the Spirit. The Epistles are written by God for doctrine correction and reproof so that those whom are Christs can be fully equipped. :)

Paul says that each has a particular calling - skopos. Not all have the same calling. There was no need in the epistles to correct anyone who thought that Mary had other children - this teaching of men that Mary had other children was not a problem in the Churches Paul wrote to.

Luke travelled with Paul; Luke wrote the most detail about Mary. Luke writes that Mary did not limit the verb when she said "I know not a man", but includes the future in her statement. This shows that Mary having other children is a teaching of men.
 
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Mary being a PV has nothing to do with how one is pure in the site of God. For it is not of the flesh that one becomes pure but of the Spirit. So Mary having other children would mean nothing for her being pure in the sight of God. For Her purity comes from the very blood of Christ and being born again just as any other human being that is Christs chosen ones.. So her remaining a virgin would be sensless. :) Her marriage to Joseph is what God would hold her to for they are to become one flesh. She gave birth To Jesus as recorded in the NT and prophecied about in the OT. This was to be a sign unto Isreal. :)
 
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Paul says that each has a particular calling - skopos. Not all have the same calling. There was no need in the epistles to correct anyone who thought that Mary had other children - this teaching of men that Mary had other children was not a problem in the Churches Paul wrote to.

Luke travelled with Paul; Luke wrote the most detail about Mary. Luke writes that Mary did not limit the verb when she said "I know not a man", but includes the future in her statement. This shows that Mary having other children is a teaching of men.
Not really. For Mary's calling was to give birth to Christ.. Not to remain a PV
 
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Philothei

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So then you are saying that God told Joseph to take Mary as His wife to deceive people? To just make people believe she was married. Kind of like Room mates?

There is no deception. Marriage does not presupposes, at some cases, relations. Are we to assume that if one of the spouses becomes sick and incapable of performing his "marital" duties not married? Or if there is no consumation for a number of reasons that marriage is not valid? What about companionship is that a legitemate ourcome of marriage? Where you see deception. Anyhow God overturns the law of nature as we know why would he not overturn a marital vow into a vow of chastity. We do have married saints who lived in "agreed" celibacy.

Friend every one of Gods Children are set apart. For this is every true believers calling. :) For it is not in the flesh that any one including Mary is set apart but in the Spirit. The Epistles are written by God for doctrine correction and reproof so that those whom are Christs can be fully equipped. :)

The epistles were pastoral letters to the communities. Why on earth would they include Mary? She was irrelevant to this...She is mentioned in ALL the Gospels and in Acts... This is ridiculous!!! Your insistance is strange.. Why others such as Magdalene, Mary of Cleopas etc. other persons of importance are not mentioned?

Because the Epistles are directed to a certain purpose...Why on earth the Apostles would talk about Mary since Mary was not even "questionable" in her times or her "ever-virginity" was scrutinized like it is today...

This is a modern time "question" as for the Apostles there was no question about her EV or we would have it in the Bible somewhere that the EV was not accepted...No where in the Bible is mehtioned. And to say that this is "proof" is obsurd. Actually it verifies to the opposite....

It was a given that is why it is not mentioned...
 
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Mary being a PV has nothing to do with how one is pure in the site of God. For it is not of the flesh that one becomes pure but of the Spirit. So Mary having other children would mean nothing for her being pure in the sight of God. For Her purity comes from the very blood of Christ and being born again just as any other human being that is Christs chosen ones.. So her remaining a virgin would be sensless. :) Her marriage to Joseph is what God would hold her to for they are to become one flesh. She gave birth To Jesus as recorded in the NT and prophecied about in the OT. This was to be a sign unto Isreal. :)

why are you speculating in defiance of clear scripture written by Luke ?
 
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Philothei

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All members of the body of Christ are given gifts. Not just the Apostles. The Holy Spirit was sent to all the believers not just the Apostles..

No true that i s not what says in the Acts... Only the Apostles got the gifts as they were "directly baptized" by the Holy Spirit... They baptized the rest ..."in the Holy Spirit" later.. If they ALL recieved it there would be no need to be baptized...The Apostles were "directly" baptized... In that sense they were "chosen" and special... They could perform miracles and speak in tongues I do not think many could claim such gifts. If that was true then all of Jerusalem population would speak all languages and that did not happen....

Here:
People were suprised they spoke so many languages the HS went to the Apostles... not to everyone...
<H5>The Holy Spirit Comes at Pentecost
1When the day of Pentecost came, they were all together in one place. 2Suddenly a sound like the blowing of a violent wind came from heaven and filled the whole house where they were sitting. 3They saw what seemed to be tongues of fire that separated and came to rest on each of them. 4All of them were filled with the Holy Spirit and began to speak in other tongues[a] as the Spirit enabled them.

5Now there were staying in Jerusalem God-fearing Jews from every nation under heaven. 6When they heard this sound, a crowd came together in bewilderment, because each one heard them speaking in his own language. 7Utterly amazed, they asked: "Are not all these men who are speaking Galileans? 8Then how is it that each of us hears them in his own native language? 9Parthians, Medes and Elamites; residents of Mesopotamia, Judea and Cappadocia, Pontus and Asia, 10Phrygia and Pamphylia, Egypt and the parts of Libya near Cyrene; visitors from Rome 11 (both Jews and converts to Judaism); Cretans and Arabs-we hear them declaring the wonders of God in our own tongues!" 12Amazed and perplexed, they asked one another, "What does this mean?" 13Some, however, made fun of them and said, "They have had too much wine.[b]"
</H5>
38Peter replied, "Repent and be baptized, every one of you, in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins. And you will receive the gift of the Holy Spirit. 39The promise is for you and your children and for all who are far off&#8212;for all whom the Lord our God will call."
 
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No true that i s not what says in the Acts... Only the Apostles got the gifts as they were "directly baptized" by the Holy Spirit... They baptized the rest ..."in the Holy Spirit" later.. If they ALL recieved it there would be no need to be baptized...The Apostles were "directly" baptized... In that sense they were "chosen" and special... They could perform miracles and speak in tongues I do not think many could claim such gifts. If that was true then all of Jerusalem population would speak all languages and that did not happen....

Here:
People were suprised they spoke so many languages the HS went to the Apostles... not to everyone...
</H5>

Act 1:15 At this time Peter stood up in the midst of the brethren (a gathering of about one hundred and twenty persons was there together), and said,
 
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Philothei

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we see in scripture where God told Joseph to take Mary as His wife but you speculate that they were only room mates in order to deceive people in order to protect Mary. That God would deal this way when He cannot lie not even a little white lie..

you are the one speculating as you do not understand the word "to know" is simple present thus talks about past, present and future event.
How can we lie when there is not enough proof to prove that the couple indeed
1. had more children
2. had relations other than the one discribed int he Bible that does not prove they had sexual relatioship.
3. Joseph was remarried and older
And the strongest of all no siblings came to comfort Mary at her time of sorrow? No siblings at the cross whatsoever.... ziltz....Nobody to stand by their mother...
His "sisters" did not even turn out to come to the day of the myrthbearing...a typical custom of annointing their loved ones... A sister would have turned up to annoint her beloved brother... would she? As far as we know it was a jewish custom and do not tell me Christ did not follow custom as it is in the Bible that is how the myrthbearers found out about the resurrection of Christ.....It is a custom where young women usually show up.....but no ..no sisters...
 
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Still you do not deal with the present tense of "knowing no man" remember?

But i understand since there is no where to grasp to prove that point...
Virgin. Not knowing a man.. She was not knowing a man for she was not married but only betrothed to Joseph at this time. So now you tell me why a woman that had no plans of ever knowing a man would betroth herself to a man? Read the word in the whole context of the whole scriptures.. Not just taking one word out and expounding on that one word without putting it in the context of the message being presented..
 
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