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You must have been raised in Texas
Here is where this form of "happy/blessed" is used in Revelation:no, just assuming that you meant your translation to be consistent with the originating text
neither Matthew or Luke record an originating greeting before the teaching of the beatitudes, therefore the only word that could be associated with "howdy" per the discussion is makarios.
I mentioned the word makarios - and its use in the Beatitudes for comparison with the use of the same word per Elizabeth and Mary. I assumed you were following the discussion.
are you trying to "own" Hellenistic Greek again
Not unless he is trying to make another Catholic translationare you trying to "own" Hellenistic Greek again
Howdy bm. Unfortunately, vs 28 in Luke is the only place that greek word is used.Originally Posted by beamishboyHave you nothing else to say? My little joke with "Howdy" has been twisted and abused beyond recognition, the way some of you twisted and abused the interpretation of Luke 11:27, 28.
Hi bm. If ya want to see both the Koine and Transliterated greek together, try this greek/hebrew interelinar.Originally Posted by beamishboy
ah, claiming "Popish" authority for you and your text -- ok.
Hi bm. If ya want to see both the Koine and Transliterated greek together, try this greek/hebrew interelinar.
Once ya download it, you can copy past the transliterated greek texts from the OliveTree site to Wordpad and use the Koine greek font.
http://www.scripture4all.org/
http://www.olivetree.com/cgi-bin/EnglishBible.htm
Hi bm. Btw, what is the difference between these greek words # 5442 and #5083 which the NKJV translates as the same word.
Hi Thekla. Did you get a chance to look over this thread I put up on the TAW board concerning that greek word used for "clement"?
The best thing about that interlinear is that it parses the hebrew/greek words and if you want to look up where an EXACT form of a word is used elsewhere, just click on the hebrew/Koine greek word and it will show you where they are used.Thanks, LLOJ
Another novel Beamishism? Do look it up in the OED and you'll find that there is something special about giving someone a blessing.
That is your problem, and I would work on getting over it.
This is another of your stock anti-Roman Catholic arguments; it makes no sense to me as an Orthodox Christian; we do not say she did. Again, your anti-Romanism warps your perspective.
A 13 year old boy might be expected not to understand how very silly, taken in the context, his words are here. St. Mary was a young virgin betrothed to an older man. She was going to be pregnant without the usual preliminaries (ask your parents); in the culture of her time she would be exposed to huge shame. We know that one of the charges made against the early Christians was that the mother of the Lord became pregnant by a Roman soldier out of wedlock. Indeed, we are told in Scripture that St. Joseph was minded to put her away quietly so as not to shame her, and only desisted when the angel of the Lord told him to. In short, far from necessarily being 'happy', she might well have asked for this 'cup' to pass her by because the burden she would be taking on was so great. But out of obedience to the Lord, she took it on. That does, actually, require a special sort of courage. You are too young to see this; one day you will see it, and I hope when it comes, you may have the good grace to be a little ashamed of your comments about St. Mary; the inherent quality she had was obedience.
Tell it to the RCs, my Church does not teach that, so do give it a rest.
You've lost me; where did I, or anyone else say otherwise? This seems like yet another example of the way in which your obsession with Roman teaching seeps into everything you write.
You've lost me again; where in Scripture does it say this was the Lord's motivation? Your insistence on knowing what the Lord was thinking worries me; it is a sign of that infallibility thing.
And I said it wasn't exactly where?
This is a non sequitur, as I have pointed out to you before. The epistles deal mainly with points of discipline and clarification, so there is no reason to accept your basic assumption here. They don't use the word 'Trinity' or explain the relationship of the Three Persons in it, either; nor do they list your 39 articles; yet all three subjects are dealt with as explanations of what the Scriptures mean.
Again, who said there was? This whole paragraph is irrelevant to a discussion with Orthodox Christians.
As by the Apostles too. No one has alleged anything else. Look again at what you are riding - it is a hobby horse, not a charger.
It says this where in Scripture?
Not again, no one has said we did! But the Church which canonised those books did venerate St. Mary. Why accept its books but not its view of Mary?
Had anyone so argued, it would have been. The only thing that is ridiculous is your labouring points no one has raised with you.
