Indeed I am --- and I sure don't need to repost to do that --- just ask around, newbie.
0) I was asking to be clear, so as not to misrepresent your position. Sorry I behaved properly.
1) I didn't ask you to repost it. Stop being pointlessly argumentative.
2) Just posting 300 times a day doesn't make someone right. Stop being patronizing.
3) Most importantly... So the Bible, which is inerrant and would therefore not contradict itself, of course, defines "fool" to be equivalent to "atheist". OK, then please explain the following:
A) Proverbs 12:15. I know atheists who have harkened unto counsel. That makes them wise, which is antithetical to being foolish.
B) Proverbs 8:5 and 9:13. Why did the AV translators use the word fool here? It's clearly (remember the Hebrew forms?) a reinforcement/synonym of the word "simple", not "atheist".
C) (My personal favorite) Job 1:22 and Psalm 74:22. I'll let you work those out on your own.
Edit to Add: Forgot to mention the other, and rather obvious, point: why did the AV translators use the word "fool", which has other connotations beyond "atheism" if the word is, in fact,
equivalent to atheist?