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Seperating Metaphor from Literal Truth.

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busterdog

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I think the question is, "Did you not come to this view that it is nothing more than an idiom because you have information from extrabiblical sources showing that the Earth is spherical and that it orbits the sun?"

Well, God knows. You have seen this reasoning before. The extrabiblical sources are not persuasive, assuming they are even relevant.

Just as Martin Luther and centuries of Christians were certain that these passages were not mere idiom, isn't it possible that you are wrong about Genesis 1 being factual?
I'm with Luther - sola scriptura - meaning, who cares what Luther thinks?

After all, you can't prove that a young earth was likely to be a world view. Ordinary literary rules do not require it. The best reading from a purely literary critical view is that allegory only is the most reasonable reading (of Genesis 1 and 2), not world view.

Obviously we differ.
 
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busterdog

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What happens is that we have a proposition that requires that you assume a context or data-set to in order to "debunk" it. So, you invalidate another view by the circular reasoning that your own world-view self-validates. I am not pointing the finger, I am just noting why I am trying to take such care on that point. I am not following you here. What proposition? What world-view? What circular reasoning?

The use of a cultural context to determine intent requires a number of assumptions. It validates itself, as all world-views do.



And let's be clear that this proposal is based on the Hebrew, not on the translation. Are you familiar with the arguments in its favour? Are you aware not only of the repetitions (which show up in translation) but also of the rhythmic elements which indicate an association with Hebrew music? I don't speak Hebrew myself, but those who do and have studied the text tell me that these exist. Even to unusual word choices made to fit the rhythm of the music.
I am pretty happy with the narrative structure and sequence, especially as compared to several of the psalms we have discussed. Its one of those things where the peripherals don't seem to make a difference to my methods and my assumptions. To some I am building the house from the roof down, but I don't apologize.

Do you think the author would agree? Or would the author perhaps say, "No, you have it all wrong. Don't you see that the primary question is one of who created the world? Not the gods of Babylon or Egypt, but the one living God who is the only God."
This is entirely possible. There will be enough that I do have wrong that the counting of days will probably be a relatively minor issue. I try to take myself out of it to avoid this problem. I try to spend some time with the idea that we are talking about six days, whatever that is.
Ouch. That strikes me as classical ad hoc reasoning. The God should have primacy doesn't mean God must always be mentioned first. God is the subject of the verb, the actor. That is enough to put him first in every sense that is pertinent.
I am not much on Hebrew grammar, but one might say "It was the beginning of time and God was there to make ...." One needs to imagine a oral presentation and a completely fresh ear. What concepts hit the mind first and what do they speak to. No one can deny that God is at the center of this verse. However, this is narrative structure. A different structure than exaltation.

Basically, I agree with you there, but I don't think it follows that this means the time reference is what would matter to a chronologist or historian. For the Hebrews, frame of reference in respect of seven days is evidently the Sabbath. One of the inferred purposes of the account is to justify the Hebrew observance of the Sabbath.
How do you justify it if you are just making it up? I am trying to imagine how that would work.

Speaking of assumptions, I set this phrase apart because I think it deserves special attention. It seems to me that you are making an
assumption that "Word" here refers to a text. Is that right?
We seem to have broad agreement on the existence of human error in several issues. I am saying that human error is missing from the surface text -- ie, essential structure, idiom, the persons involved, dates, etc.


If so, to which text?

More fundamentally, why a text at all? In the NT we are introduced to a Word who is not a text and who was exalted. Is this possibly a prophetic reference to that Word?
In that context, it is hard to imagine that the Bible would require a choice between the two. What it seems to do invariably is to invoke both or multiple meanings, particularly when Jesus is in view -- a hypostatic union, if you will forgive me.



It's not corroboration when it is the same person repeating the same thing. Corroboration requires evidence from a different source. Note that even under the Documentary Thesis, the author of Genesis 1 and Exodus 20 are the same person.
Corroboration of intent, assuming as I do that God is speaking .

I think again that you are conflating "Word" with "scriptural text" and I am not comfortable with that. I do not agree that the text is explicit about its purpose, especially the sequential nature of the days. To me the liturgical meaning of the seven days is closer to the purpose.
The Bible depends upon idiom and sequence for its essentials. Repeated patters of picture words. It is a method intended to survive corruption. To me, it succeeds. Most evidence of scribal consistency is off the charts. To presume otherwise for the days of Moses is to, well, presume.


Again I am not following you. What do you mean by "that upon which you reason"? What is not invented? What is only implied? How does the surface text differ from the implication?
Again, some precise concepts meet the ear and in particular order. The immediate focus of the narrator and the audience is on what is explicit. A time. A person (or three persons). What he does.

As for invention, you are not inventing the concept of greatness as one that appears in the text. It is in there, by implication. That's all. Just trying to say I don't think your reasoning is a flight of fancy. I am just trying to focus on something different, the bare essence of the concepts that the reader encounters in each word.

Why do you think the surface text is about time and sequence? Does it occur to you that this reading of the surface text is based on your cultural conditioning? And therefore possibly does not concur with the writer's reading of the surface text.
It occurs to me all the time.

Though I do fight the bloody culture pretty hard, which I guess is a culture of its own. .
 
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shernren

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1. We are talking about the Holy Spirit.

But of course, that is simply your opinion. Does the Bible itself say that the Holy Spirit wrote it?

I see, for example, quite a few psalms that say they were the "psalms of David", not of the Holy Spirit speaking through David, and similarly psalms of Moses, and Solomon, and Asaph - but never of the Holy Spirit speaking through them. Is the Bible wrong there?

I see, for example, the book of Job having 4 chapters attributed to God, and the rest of it attributed to an unknown narrator or to Job, Eliphaz, Bildad, Zophar, and Elihu, not to the Holy Spirit. Is the Bible wrong there?

I see, for example, the letters of Paul signed off by Paul. Shouldn't they have started "the Holy Spirit, speaking through Paul"? Is the Bible wrong there?

I see, for example, Peter saying: "Concerning this salvation, the prophets, who spoke of the grace that was to come to you, searched intently and with the greatest care, trying to find out the time and circumstances to which the Spirit of Christ in them was pointing when he predicted the sufferings of Christ and the glories that would follow. It was revealed to them that they were not serving themselves but you, when they spoke of the things that have now been told you by those who have preached the gospel to you by the Holy Spirit sent from heaven. Even angels long to look into these things." (1 Peter 1:10-12 NIV) Peter knows that those who preached the gospel preached it by the Holy Spirit. But why is it that the prophets had to search intently and with the greatest care? Were they not being verbally inspired by the Holy Spirit?

Scripture doesn't claim to have been written by the Holy Spirit. It certainly claims that God can work through it, and we agree to that. But the Bible never says it was written by God, and certainly not in the supernatural manner that some think it, as if the rest of the Bible was written by God's finger on the backside of the (new) Ten Commandments, or as if we can wake up one morning to find fresh little black KJVs littering the road like modern manna.

When parts of the Bible attribute themselves to David, or to Paul, or to Job, or to Isaiah, why won't you take the Bible at its word? You are certainly comfortable with it when the situation demands. Remember this?

busterdog said:
This is of course Job speaking, see verse 1. I don't really care whether Job was a flat earther or not. Nothing requires that the narrator be so mistaken simply because the words of another are reported here. What is actually implied to me is that the earth is moved in its very orbit, which is a quite a different level of sophistication. Does the earth sit on pillars? Job doesn't say it does. Does he think there are pillars under the mountains? Again, I don't really care.

(emphasis added)

What happened to the Holy Spirit here? Isn't the Bible written by the Holy Spirit? And if the Holy Spirit let Job's geocentrist words into the Bible, shouldn't you be concerned? Shouldn't you prayerfully consider whether or not you should disregard all contrary physical evidence and believe that the sun goes around the Earth instead of the other way around? After all, you acknowledged that there was a possibility that Job's words here were indeed geocentrist ... you just couldn't care less though it's in the Bible you say was written by the Holy Spirit.

2. No one can prove that it was likely to be a world view. Ordinary literary rules do not require it. The best reading from a purely literary critical view is that idiom only is the most reasonable reading, not world view.

So, if there is a geocentric idiom in the text, is it not then fair to say that the geocentric idiom is the most reasonable reading?
 
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laptoppop

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Scripture doesn't claim to have been written by the Holy Spirit. It certainly claims that God can work through it, and we agree to that. But the Bible never says it was written by God, and certainly not in the supernatural manner that some think it, as if the rest of the Bible was written by God's finger on the backside of the (new) Ten Commandments, or as if we can wake up one morning to find fresh little black KJVs littering the road like modern manna.

Yes, but what about the 10 commandments? Even if I accepted the rest of what you said they are specifically written by God and specifically refer to a 6 day creation.
 
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shernren

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Yes, but what about the 10 commandments? Even if I accepted the rest of what you said they are specifically written by God and specifically refer to a 6 day creation.
I don't see any 6-day creation here:

"Observe the Sabbath day by keeping it holy, as the LORD your God has commanded you. Six days you shall labor and do all your work, but the seventh day is a Sabbath to the LORD your God. On it you shall not do any work, neither you, nor your son or daughter, nor your manservant or maidservant, nor your ox, your donkey or any of your animals, nor the alien within your gates, so that your manservant and maidservant may rest, as you do. Remember that you were slaves in Egypt and that the LORD your God brought you out of there with a mighty hand and an outstretched arm. Therefore the LORD your God has commanded you to observe the Sabbath day.
(Deuteronomy 5:12-15 NIV)

You should be more worried about that than me. :)
 
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gluadys

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The use of a cultural context to determine intent requires a number of assumptions. It validates itself, as all world-views do.

A cultural context at least provides some evidential clues as to what the intent could be; even more so as to what the perceived intent would be.

And it is not as if we had a choice about using cultural context. The default, if we do not use the cultural context of the author, is to use our own. Which one is more likely to be a reliable indicator of intent, or at least, perceived intent?

In fact, is not the only reason to question whether the author's intent was culturally conditioned the conflict between an intent conditoned by the culture of the author and an intent conditioned by our own?

I am pretty happy with the narrative structure and sequence, especially as compared to several of the psalms we have discussed. Its one of those things where the peripherals don't seem to make a difference to my methods and my assumptions. To some I am building the house from the roof down, but I don't apologize.

That's fine as a choice. But I don't see this passage as a narrative structure. The second creation account is narrative. And it is very different in style from the first. The first comes across to me as much more poetic and liturgical in its format.


I am not much on Hebrew grammar, but one might say "It was the beginning of time and God was there to make ...."

And one doesn't have punctuation in the original to guide the reading. Some have suggested it is a subordinate clause: "In the beginning, when God was creating the heavens and the earth, the earth was empty and without form."


How do you justify it if you are just making it up? I am trying to imagine how that would work.

The writer is not making up the Sabbath. He is justifying a practice unique to Hebrew culture in the face of pagan challenges to that culture. It is a way of validating their identity and the need to hold on to that identity as part of their covenant with their God. Remember that the Israelites were constantly tempted to follow other gods and the religious practices of their neighbours. Failure to observe the Sabbath is one of the constant indictments against them by the prophets. So there was evidently questioning, not only from outsiders, but within the community itself, as to why the Sabbath should be observed.

We seem to have broad agreement on the existence of human error in several issues. I am saying that human error is missing from the surface text -- ie, essential structure, idiom, the persons involved, dates, etc.

I think the bible has proved to be quite accurate historically when referring to history. Though I wouldn't try to say it is perfect in this respect. There are curious little contradictions, such as whether it was David or someone else who killed Goliath. Obviously, in such a case, one account has to be wrong.

But I would also go deeper than the surface text. I would say that sometimes the text reflects error in theology. The genocidal wars said to be commanded by God would be an example of where IMO the Israelites did not have a correct concept of the will of God.


In that context, it is hard to imagine that the Bible would require a choice between the two. What it seems to do invariably is to invoke both or multiple meanings, particularly when Jesus is in view -- a hypostatic union, if you will forgive me.

No, I won't let that pass. That would make the bible part of the Trinity and it's not.

I still think you have to justify that the psalmist is referring to a text at all, even before you can start justifying that the text is the bible or any part of it.

It is interesting to see the different translations of this verse. Not all translations use the word "above". Both the NIV and the NRSV say "You have exalted your word and your name". The NRSV gives the "above" reading as an alternate in a footnote, but the NIV makes no comment. The TEV uses "command" instead of "word". And a particularly interesting translation is that of the Jerusalem bible which says: " I give thanks to your name for your love and faithfulness; your promise is even greater than your fame".

That sounds quite different, but when we remember that one meaning of "name" is "reputation" or "fame" and that when making a promise we often say "I give you my word" one can see the logic of this rendering. Just as clearly, in this rendering, no reference to a text is required.

The assumption that every time scripture speaks of the word of God it is referring to itself is just that: an assumption. In many cases, it is really not clear that it is. Some might even say it is never a self-referential phrase. It is interesting that in the NT, whenever the authors refer to the text of scripture, the word they use is "scriptures" (literally, "writings") not "word" or "word of God". Or they refer to some section of the scriptures such as the Law, Psalms, Writings or Prophets.

That "word of God" means first and foremost the written word of scripture is an easy assumption to make in a literate culture, but not necessarily one we should impose on a pre-literate culture.

Corroboration of intent, assuming as I do that God is speaking .

In one passage or both of them?


Again, some precise concepts meet the ear and in particular order. The immediate focus of the narrator and the audience is on what is explicit. A time. A person (or three persons). What he does.

As for invention, you are not inventing the concept of greatness as one that appears in the text. It is in there, by implication. That's all. Just trying to say I don't think your reasoning is a flight of fancy. I am just trying to focus on something different, the bare essence of the concepts that the reader encounters in each word.

Thanks for the clarification. I guess what I am getting at is that what seems to you to be clearly a reference to the beginning of a temporal sequence may not be. "In the beginning" may mean something like the "dream time" of the aboriginal people of Australia, or the "Once upon a time" of traditional fairy tales. It may even imply the immeasurable singularity of t=0 in big bang cosmology.

The Bible depends upon idiom and sequence for its essentials. Repeated patters of picture words. It is a method intended to survive corruption. To me, it succeeds. Most evidence of scribal consistency is off the charts. To presume otherwise for the days of Moses is to, well, presume.

It occurs to me all the time.

Though I do fight the bloody culture pretty hard, which I guess is a culture of its own. .

I don't think we are dealing with any scribal inconsistencies here. What I am suggesting is that the surface text itself may be different in different cultural contexts. To you the days of the Genesis creation account suggest a measured sequence of time. That is a normal and natural expectation of a modern Enlightenment-based point of view that assumes numbers are primarily for counting and measuring. But pre-Enlightenment views of numbers were often different. There was much more emphasis on the essential meaning of numbers i.e. their symbolic meanings.

A big impetus in the birth of modern science was Galileo's defence of the importance of measurement. In fact, modern science can almost be defined as the study of what can be measured. But in medieval thinking, the numerical measure of something--whether height or weight or volume or time--told nothing of importance about it. Numbers only told you there was more or less of something. It told you nothing about its nature. And medieval philosophers were interested in discovering the nature of things.

Numbers themselves were believed to have specific natures. And that goes back to very ancient times. Numbers were not just a counting mechanism, though they were that as well. They were important symbols and principles of the essence of things. So to the ancient Hebrews, the important thing about the Genesis days could well be not a chronology, but the expression of the essence of the number 7 which signified completeness, wholeness as it combined 3, the number of spirit with 4, the number of earth i.e 7 = the totality of the heavens and the earth, the completeness of creation. And that is why the Sabbath falls on the seventh day.

To us, that is a strange way of thinking, and not one that would occur as a natural way of reading the surface text. But to a people for which such a relationship of numbers was familiar and important, that could well be the most natural way to read the surface text.

So we should not assume that the surface text is what seems plain or common sense to us. The meanings that seem esoteric to us may be the meanings that were meant to be plain and common sense in the mind of the writer.
 
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busterdog

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A cultural context at least provides some evidential clues as to what the intent could be; even more so as to what the perceived intent would be.

And it is not as if we had a choice about using cultural context. The default, if we do not use the cultural context of the author, is to use our own. Which one is more likely to be a reliable indicator of intent, or at least, perceived intent?

In fact, is not the only reason to question whether the author's intent was culturally conditioned the conflict between an intent conditoned by the culture of the author and an intent conditioned by our own?

Cultural context is certainly evidence. I think there is an admixture of disregarded sophistication in some cultures. There is evidence that some of the ancients were ahead of Copernicus in some respects. But, let's assume a majority of the audience was geocentric. That is a fair assumption.

What if you have two people collaborating here? One is Moses. The other guy is from Mars. He built a transporter and beamed himself to earth. Now you have to determine which voice is which. One voice is only represented in his enormously superior knowledge, of which we have a vague sense, and in what is written in his collaboration with Moses.

Now you have one of those ultimate questions arising from something fairly mundane. You have to make an assumption about which voice is which and evaluate the sophistication of the something for which no "culture" that we know of applies.

To make matters worse, we know that the martian is willing to act quite human at times. He can morph into a human baby, though he apparently confuses stables with proper bedchambers.

Now, how do you assume that culture tells you anything about the knowledge of the writer? You know that the writer is fluent in the idiom of the audience.

But, your problems are whether martians really exist, can they speak like humans or was Mohammed the only real martian? All ultimate issues. And of course, now all of your thought experiments and worldviews are "contaminated" with an unknowable factor in reality. When you say that you know something, based upon your own culture and experience, when are you able to exclude the intervention of martian technology.

When you say you know anything at all you now have a problem. Wittgenstein worried about whether the hand in front him was really his hand. He came to the conclusion that this ultimate question demanded assumptions and that there was no sufficient a prior or proof for this problem. We have related suggestions by Heidegger, Foucult.

So, culture is evidence. But what can't it do? It can't tell you whether you are hearing a super-intelligent influence speaking in human idiom or whether its just a shepherd talking about a flat earth.


Genocidal war.

Jesus said it would be better for a man to be drowned with a millstone than for him to lead a child astray from his faith.

Can one imagine a people so corrupt that it would be better to simply end it than allow it to get worse and give birth to more faithless children, many of which were burned to death for religious frivolity? Was there a better way? We can imagine a better way, but we could also well imagine the situation getting much worse. Look at the book or Revelations. There comes a time to just end it, because it just keeps getting worse.

As matter of imagination, finding error remains difficult. I have heard many assumptions about the Amorites, etc. I am not always clear on how well they are founded. But, with limited data, one can imagine that this was the right decision.
 
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gluadys

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What if you have two people collaborating here? One is Moses. The other guy is from Mars. He built a transporter and beamed himself to earth. Now you have to determine which voice is which. One voice is only represented in his enormously superior knowledge, of which we have a vague sense, and in what is written in his collaboration with Moses.

But you don't have a collaboration in the writing. It is not a case of Moses writing this bit and God writing that bit. Moses (or whoever the author was) does all of the writing. Moses is the one who has to take the ideas of the guy from Mars and turn it into something that his audience can relate to. For that matter, Moses has to make some sense of it himself so that he can teach it to others. And Moses is going to make sense of it within the cultural paradigm he is familiar with.

If we have God's "voice" in the text, it is only as it is expressed through Moses' voice. And that voice will be consistent with his culture--even if, at times, it pushes the boundaries. Essentially, for our purposes, there is only one voice, not two. If God can use that voice, fine, but he does use the voice of the author, he does not override it with a distinctively different voice.

When you say that you know something, based upon your own culture and experience, when are you able to exclude the intervention of martian technology.

You can't exclude it, ever. But you can't throw over the very possibility of knowledge because of that, either. Especially if you take the concept of creation seriously.

When you say you know anything at all you now have a problem. Wittgenstein worried about whether the hand in front him was really his hand. He came to the conclusion that this ultimate question demanded assumptions and that there was no sufficient a prior or proof for this problem. We have related suggestions by Heidegger, Foucult.

This is the basic epistemological dilemma. And it does require a priori assumptions about the nature of perception and the relation of perception to reality. One of the fundamental assumptions (one that really is an assumption and not a mis-labelled conclusion) underlying all of science, is that our perceptions do relate to an ontologically real reality, and do so for the most part truthfully. This is consistent with the Christian doctrine of creation which affirms that God really did make something distinct from himself and give it a substantial existence. In short, both our faith and our science assume the reality and knowability of a physical existence.

This is why the church has always rejected the Omphalos argument. YECism, on the other hand, needs something like the Omphalos argument, because it needs to reject the reality of evidence. It needs to be able to say that our perceptions do not lead us to a correct vision of physical reality.

Philosophically, there is no way of validating that perceptual phenomena have any physical existence or are anything more than mental constructs. It is a matter of assumption, or faith that they do--that we do connect to a real world created by God via our perceptions.


So, culture is evidence. But what can't it do? It can't tell you whether you are hearing a super-intelligent influence speaking in human idiom or whether its just a shepherd talking about a flat earth.

And it doesn't need to. Because any super-intelligence is still using a human, culturally conditioned voice, so it is not sounding any different from a shepherd talking about a flat earth. If we find we have reason to reject the flat-earth paradigm, we still have to translate the message from that paradigm to ours.
 
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busterdog

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I don't know about that. Perhaps its a compliment to you. .

I just forget the harsh things that ought to be forgotten and use the old threads to remember some stuff I need to remember for use elsewhere. It was hard to find this one. But, it was a lot of work.
 
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