Notes: Romans 6:10 To Romans 9:3

*Romans 6:10 / *Rom. 6:10 -

(Once)

This means that Jesus Christ died once for all time (1 Peter 3:18, Hebrews 7:27, Hebrews 9:26-28, Hebrews 10:10,12), not for all individuals.

(See section 2 of John 10:11 above)

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(Re: Means that there are no aliens?)

Romans 6:10, 1 Peter 3:18, and Hebrews 9:26 can refer to Jesus Christ dying once on the earth for elect sinners on the earth. The verses do not forbid Christ from dying once on any other inhabited planets in the universe for any elect sinners on those planets.

(See also section 2 of Psalms 8:3 above)

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*Romans 6:14 / *Rom. 6:14 -

See Hebrews 10:26 and Romans 6:15 below.

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*Romans 6:15 / *Rom. 6:15 -

Christians cannot sin without repentance and expect to be saved in the end (Hebrews 10:26-29). But they can never keep from sinning by trying to keep the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law. For it will only cause them to sin more (Romans 7:7-11, Romans 6:14). Instead, by God's Holy Spirit (Galatians 5:16, Romans 8:13), Christians keep the New Covenant law of Jesus Christ (Galatians 6:2, John 14:15, Hebrews 7:12, Hebrews 8:6-13, Matthew 26:28), which forbids all manner of sin to those who want to be saved from hell in the end (1 Corinthians 6:9-10, Galatians 5:19-21, Revelation 21:8).

(See also the "stricter" section of Matthew 5:19 above)

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*Romans 6:16 / *Rom. 6:16 -

This does not mean that Christians do not have free will. For they still have to choose to "yield themselves" to obey either sin or righteousness.

(See also Joshua 24:15 above)

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*Romans 6:22 / *Rom. 6:22 -

See Romans 6:6 above.

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*Romans 6:23 / *Rom. 6:23 -

(Re: A *free *gift) / (*Eternal)

Romans 6:23 does not require once-saved-always-saved. For a free gift can be taken away. For example, imagine that a father gives his young son a puppy as a free gift (cf. Romans 6:23), but warns him that he has to remember to feed and water the puppy every day (cf. Luke 9:23) or it will die (cf. James 2:26). The son says no problem and takes good care of the puppy for a couple of weeks. But then he gets so distracted playing video games that he forgets to feed or water the puppy for three days and it dies. The father then takes the dead puppy away from the son and buries it in the back yard (cf. John 15:2a,6). Does this mean that the puppy was not a free gift?

Also, possessing something eternal in itself does not require that someone will eternally keep possession of it. For example, imagine that one of the eternal precious stones of the heavenly city of New Jerusalem (Revelation 21:19) happened to be given to someone living now on the earth and he kept it in his pocket. But after a few years, he got complacent about it and sold it to a jeweler for a tremendous load of cash (cf. Hebrews 12:16-17). Does this mean that it was not eternal?

~

(Re: But is not eternal life not like an eternal gem, because life is something which is intrinsic in me?)

Note that life is not in you if you die, proving that it is not intrinsic, but something which you either possess or do not possess.

~

(Re: Why do we still die after our sins are atoned for?)

Even though Christians' past sins have been atoned for by the sacrifice of Jesus Christ (Romans 3:25), Christians still await the future redemption of their physical bodies (Romans 8:23-25) into immortality at Jesus' future, Second Coming (1 Corinthians 15:21-23,51-57).

~

(Re: Is death the consequence of sin and not based on divine, governmental volition?)

Death is based on divine, governmental volition, because it is by such volition that the wages of sin is death (Romans 6:23), without God having to ask any sinner's permission. And even human government has been granted by God the power of capital punishment for crimes (Romans 13:4), without having to ask any criminal's permission.

(See also the "permission" section of Proverbs 26:2 above)

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*Romans 7:4 / *Rom. 7:4 -

(Re: OSAS?)

See Romans 6:3 and Romans 6:6 above.

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(Re: Means that Israel, divorced from God the Father, will remarry someone else: the Son?)

Romans 7:2-3 shows that a woman who has a valid husband can marry someone else only if her husband dies. Are you saying that God the Father has died or will die? Or are you saying that Israel still has God the Father as a husband and is not divorced from Him?

Also, note that Romans 7:2-3 does not refer to a divorced woman. For the law did allow a divorced woman to marry another man while her first husband was still alive (Deuteronomy 24:2).

Also, the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law has already been completely and forever abolished for both Jews and Gentiles (Ephesians 2:15-16). And under the New Covenant, which is now in effect for both Jews and Gentiles (Hebrews 12:24, Hebrews 9:15), a woman is not allowed to marry another man after divorcing a valid husband (1 Corinthians 7:11, Mark 10:12).

(See also Mark 10:11 above, and the "Law" section of Ephesians 2:15 below)

~

(Re: Means that there is no New Covenant law?)

Romans 7:4-6 refers to the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law, which was not of faith (Galatians 3:12), and which was in effect while God's Holy Spirit "was not yet given; because that Jesus was not yet glorified" (John 7:39).

Romans 7:4-6 is not contradicting that Christians are under the New Covenant law, which they must obey by faith and the Spirit if they are to be saved from hell ultimately (Romans 8:13).

~

Nothing restricts the law in Romans 7:4-6 to only the Ten Commandments.

Also, the New Covenant law forbids all manner of sins to those who want to be ultimately saved from hell (1 Corinthians 6:9-10, Galatians 5:19-21, Revelation 21:8), not just the sins mentioned in the Ten Commandments.

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*Romans 7:5 / *Rom. 7:5 -

See Romans 6:15 above.

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*Romans 7:6 / *Rom. 7:6 -

See under 2 Corinthians 3:6 below.

~

(Re: How can the spirit of the law be kept without placing oneself under its letter?)

See "Exodus 20:14" under Ephesians 2:15 below.

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*Romans 7:7-11 / *Rom. 7:7 -

See Romans 6:15 above.

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*Romans 7:9 / *Rom. 7:9 -

(Re: Revelation 20:4)

In the original Greek, this uses a different word (anazao: G0326) for "revived" than the word (zao: G2198) used in Revelation 20:4 for "lived".

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*Romans 7:12 / *Rom. 7:12 -

The letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law is still holy, just, and good in itself (Romans 7:12), even though it is no longer meant to be practiced by people (Romans 7:6).

(See the "Law" section of Ephesians 2:15 below)

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*Romans 7:14 / *Rom. 7:14 -

While the Old Covenant Mosaic law is spiritual in itself (Romans 7:14), when humans perform the works of the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law, especially its physical circumcision (Galatians 6:12-13), these are works of the flesh as opposed to spiritual works of faith (Galatians 3:2-3, Philippians 3:2-14; 1 Thessalonians 1:3, Galatians 5:6, Titus 3:8). For the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law is not of faith (Galatians 3:12).

(See also Galatians 3:2 below)

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*Romans 7:17 / *Rom. 7:17 -

When the apostle Paul said: "it is no more I that do it" (Romans 7:17,20), by "I" he meant only his "inward" self (Romans 7:22), his spiritual mind (Romans 7:25,23, Ephesians 4:23). He was not denying that it was another, carnal part of himself doing it. For he admitted: "I am carnal" (Romans 7:14), and referred to the sinfulness of "my flesh" (Romans 7:18), and "my members" (Romans 7:23). And so he referred repeatedly to the sin which "I do" (Romans 7:15-16,19).

It is the same with everyone. For everyone sins only after being enticed by his "own" lust (James 1:14-15). So in Romans 7:17,20 the apostle Paul did not mean that Christians are not responsible when they commit a sin. They still have to repent after they commit a sin (2 Corinthians 12:21; 2 Corinthians 7:9, Revelation 2:16, Revelation 3:19, Revelation 3:3), or they will ultimately lose their salvation (1 Corinthians 9:27, Romans 8:13, Hebrews 10:26-29).

~

(Re: What is repentance?)

See the "repentance" section of Hebrews 10:26 below.

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*Romans 7:18 / *Rom. 7:18 -

(Re: Gnosticism)

The apostle Paul is not a Gnostic. He even warns against Gnosticism's false "gnosis" in 1 Timothy 6:20 (in the original Greek). He is using "flesh" in Romans 7:18 and Romans 8:13 in the sense of our fallen sin-nature, not in the sense of our physical flesh. For otherwise, in Romans 8:8, for example, he would be saying that Jesus Christ cannot please God the Father, because Christ is in physical flesh (2 John 1:7, Luke 24:39). But Christ does please the Father (Matthew 3:17).

(See also Luke 24:39 above)

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*Romans 7:24b / *Rom. 7:24b -

This is both a current, spiritual deliverance of Christians from bondage to sin (Romans 8:2-14, Romans 6:1-23, John 8:34-36, Galatians 5:16; 2 Corinthians 7:1), and a future deliverance from the mortality of their bodies (Romans 8:23-25) at Jesus Christ's Second Coming (Philippians 3:20-21; 1 Corinthians 15:21-23,51-57).

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*Romans 8:1 / *Rom. 8:1 -

[Romans 8:1, KJV]

In the original Greek Textus Receptus, and in the KJV, the latter half of this verse states the condition for the first half. If the latter half is not done, then the first half does not apply, as other verses also make clear (Romans 8:13; 1 Corinthians 9:27, Hebrews 10:26-29).

(See also Hebrews 10:26 below, Matthew 24:48 above, and Hebrews 6:4 below)

--

*Romans 8:3 / *Rom. 8:3 -

This is not denying that Jesus Christ is in flesh per se. For the apostle Paul had started out the book of Romans by saying that Jesus "was made of the seed of David according to the flesh" (Romans 1:3). And the whole point of Romans 8:3 is that Jesus was made flesh so that on the Cross, sin could be condemned in the flesh (Romans 8:3c; 2 Corinthians 5:21). Instead, Romans 8:3 is denying that Jesus was sent into the world in "sinful" flesh. For Jesus was without sin (Hebrews 4:15; 2 Corinthians 5:21).

(See also paragraph 3 of Romans 5:19a above. And see Luke 24:39 above)

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*Romans 8:5-6 / *Rom. 8:5 / *Rom. 8:6 -

See Romans 7:18 and Romans 8:3 above.

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*Romans 8:7 / *Rom. 8:7 -

(Re: Is the "carnal" mind the "human" mind per se? Also, is this all that the Bible is referring to when it refers to "Satan"?)

No, for Jesus Christ has a fully human mind (Hebrews 2:16-18), and yet it is not carnal (Hebrews 4:15). Also, Jesus was tempted by the literal angelic being called Satan, the devil (Matthew 4:1-11, Revelation 12:9), just as there are other literal angelic beings, who are either bad (Revelation 12:9b) or good (Hebrews 1:7,14).

(See also section 2 of Revelation 13 below)

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*Romans 8:8-9 / *Rom. 8:8 -

This does not mean that those addressed in Romans 8:13 are not Christians. For God's Holy Spirit does not take away Christians' free will. They can have the Spirit in them so that they are not "in" (Greek: en, G1722) the flesh (Romans 8:9), but they can still wrongly employ their free will to live "after" (kata: G2596) the flesh (Romans 8:13) without repentance to the ultimate loss of their salvation (Hebrews 10:26-29; 1 Corinthians 9:27, Luke 12:45-46). Also, Hebrews 6:4-8 shows that even those who have the Spirit of God can end up being burned, can end up losing their salvation, because of falling away, because of wrongly employing their free will to commit apostasy (John 15:6; 2 Timothy 2:12b, Mark 8:35-38).

(See also Psalms 139:7 above)

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*Romans 8:9 / *Rom. 8:9 -

The fact that no one can be a Christian without God's Holy Spirit (Romans 8:9), and that the Spirit will never leave Christians (John 14:16), proves that the Spirit is not going to be taken off of the earth before the future Antichrist is revealed. For there will be Christians who will still be alive on the earth after the Antichrist is revealed (Revelation 13:7-10, Revelation 20:4). And they will be blessed in their death, by the Spirit (Revelation 14:12-13).

(See also 2 Thessalonians 2:6 below)

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*Romans 8:13 / *Rom. 8:13 -

This does not have to explicitly refer to "free will" for it to be referring to free-willed actions, just as, for example, Matthew 28:19 does not have to explicitly refer to "the Trinity" for it to be referring to the Trinity. Romans 8:13 is not addressing robots, but human beings with free will. Romans 8:13a refers to free-willed sin without repentance (Hebrews 10:26-29). And Romans 8:13b refers to free-willed repentance, in that it shows that a Christian can choose to no longer live after the flesh, but instead, through God's Holy Spirit, to mortify the deeds of the body (see also what Galatians 5:16 says).

And Romans 8:12 supports that Romans 8:13 refers to free-willed actions. For Romans 8:12 means that Christians do not have to live after the flesh. They are free to choose not to commit sin (Romans 8:2-14, Romans 6:1-23, John 8:34-36, Galatians 5:16; 2 Corinthians 7:1). And their being debtors to live for Jesus Christ instead of themselves (2 Corinthians 5:15) does not take away their free will. For they can still wrongly employ their free will to ignore their debt to Jesus and to live after the flesh without repentance to the ultimate loss of their salvation (Romans 8:13, Hebrews 10:26-29; 1 Corinthians 9:27).

~

(Re: Means that flesh is evil?)

No, see Romans 7:18 above.

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*Romans 8:14-17 / *Rom. 8:14 -

(Re: Are angels/aliens God's children/heirs?)

See "Romans 8:14" under Psalms 8:3 above.

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*Romans 8:16 / *Rom. 8:16 -

(Re: Does being children of God mean once-saved-always-saved?)

No, see Galatians 4:6 below.

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*Romans 8:19-25 / *Rom. 8:19 -

Here "the creature" and "the whole creation" is not all of mankind, for it is distinguished from the human children of God (Romans 8:19,21,23). Also, "the creature itself also shall be delivered from the bondage of corruption" (Romans 8:21) cannot mean that all of mankind will be delivered from the bondage of corruption, for not all of mankind will be (Matthew 25:41,46, Matthew 13:38-42, Mark 9:45b-46), but only a relatively few individuals (Matthew 7:14, Matthew 22:14) compared with all of humanity.

In Romans 8:19-25, in the original Greek, "the creature" is "ho (G3588) ktisis (G2937)". The apostle Paul had earlier used the same phrase with regard to people worshipping images not only of humans, but also of animals (Romans 1:23,25). For "the creature" includes any kind of thing which is not "the Creator" (Romans 1:25). That is why just after Romans 8:19-25, Paul employs "creature" (ktisis) in a way which includes even things which are neither human nor animal (Romans 8:39). Similarly, Romans 1:20 refers to the "creation" (ktisis) in a way which includes all kinds of things which are made, including inanimate things. Indeed, compare the idea of Romans 1:20 with that of Psalms 19:1-4.

So such verses as Romans 8:19-22, Mark 16:15, and Colossians 1:23 include every kind of created thing, not just humans, and not even just humans and animals.

(See also Mark 16:15 above)

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*Romans 8:22 / *Rom. 8:22 -

This can refer only to the whole earthly creation, just as Genesis 1 can.

(See sentences 2-4 of Genesis 1:1(space) above)

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*Romans 8:23-25 / *Rom. 8:23 -

(Re: Is this the apostle Paul's definition of hope in 1 Corinthians 13:13?)

No, it is his referring to the hope of physical resurrection. This is only one (although a very important) thing, while the hope which the apostle Paul refers to in 1 Corinthians 13:13 hopes for "all things" good (1 Corinthians 13:7).

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*Romans 8:28-39 / *Rom. 8:28 -

This applies only to "them who are the called according to God's purpose" (Romans 8:28), that is, elect individuals (Romans 8:33); and only to those elect who "love God" (Romans 8:28), meaning obey him (1 John 5:3). Elect individuals, even after they become Christians, can wrongly employ their free will to stop obeying God, which means to stop loving Him (John 14:24, Matthew 24:12).

(See also Jude 1:21 below)

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*Romans 8:29-31 / *Rom. 8:29 -

(Re: *Glory / *Glorified)

Romans 8:29-31 shows that all elect individuals are glorified at some point during their lifetime, just as they are all justified at some point during their lifetime. In Romans 8:30 the apostle Paul uses the same verb-tense for "glorified" as for "justified" and "called". He does not say: "whom he justified, them he also will glorify", but "whom he justified, them he also glorified". For the glory which he is speaking of is not something in the future, but a present and ongoing reality for Christians (2 Corinthians 3:18, John 17:22; 1 Peter 4:14).

But Christians already being glorified does not mean that they have been turned into glorified robots. For they can still wrongly employ their free will to the ultimate loss of their salvation (Hebrews 10:26-29, Hebrews 6:4-8, Matthew 25:26,30). Besides the present glorification of Christians, there will also be a future glorification of obedient Christians at their physical resurrection at Jesus Christ's Second Coming (1 Peter 5:1,4, Philippians 3:20-21; 1 Corinthians 15:21-23,43, Romans 8:17-25; 2 Corinthians 4:17, Colossians 3:4, Colossians 1:27). But this future glory will be dependent on Christians having continued in the faith (Colossians 1:23, Hebrews 3:6,12,14), having patiently continued in good works and obedience (Romans 2:6-8, Hebrews 5:9), and having repented from every sin that they committed (Hebrews 10:26-29; 1 Corinthians 9:27). And there is no assurance that they will have chosen to do all of these things to the end (Luke 8:13, Matthew 25:26,30, Luke 12:45-46).

(See also Luke 17:10 above)

~

(Re: Does requiring works rob Jesus of glory?)

No, for our works could never save us apart from our continued faith in Jesus Christ (John 3:36) and His sacrifice on the Cross for our sins (Romans 3:25). And we have no ability to do any good works apart from abiding in Jesus (John 15:4-5, Philippians 2:12-13).

~

(Conformed to the image of his Son)

This conforming is ongoing now within initially saved individuals, that is, within Christians (2 Corinthians 3:18).

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*Romans 8:30 / *Rom. 8:30 -

This refers to initial salvation, which God grants apart from works (Ephesians 2:8-9). But ultimate salvation depends on works (Romans 2:6-8).

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*Romans 8:34 / *Rom. 8:34 -

Here "us" is not everyone, but only elect individuals (Romans 8:33).

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*Romans 8:37 / *Rom. 8:37 -

This does mean that elect individuals will overcome by God's love for them. But Romans 8:28 had already stated the condition that this applies only so long as they love God, which means to obey Him (1 John 5:3).

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*Romans 8:38-39 / *Rom. 8:38 / *Rom. 8:39 -

This means that nothing outside of Christians' own free-willed actions can separate them from God's love. For Romans 8:38-39 is not contradicting that Christians themselves can wrongly employ their free will to the ultimate loss of their salvation (Hebrews 10:26-29, Hebrews 6:4-8, Matthew 25:26,30).

Regarding the part of Romans 8:38-39 which says: "neither death, nor life", it means that neither Christians' continued living in itself nor their dying in itself can separate them from God's love in the sense of them losing their salvation just for continuing to live or just for dying. For unless Christians wrongly employ their free will to commit suicide, whether they continue to live or die is outside of their control.

(See also Romans 8:28 and John 10:28 above)

~

(Re: Is there victory over *principalities?)

Yes, for even if the devil himself kills an obedient Christian physically (Revelation 2:10, Romans 8:36), that Christian still takes victory over the devil spiritually (Revelation 12:11, Revelation 14:13, Romans 8:37). For physical death does not separate an obedient Christian from God's love (Philippians 1:21,23; 2 Corinthians 5:8).

(See also Luke 10:19 above)

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*Romans 9:3-8 / *Rom. 9:3 / *Rom. 9:6 -

(Re: Are only genetic Jews Israel?)

All genetic Jews are part of genetic Israel (Romans 9:3-5). But being part of the true, spiritual Israel, the true, spiritual seed of Abraham, the promised seed, is not based on genetics (Romans 9:6-24), but on God's election (Romans 9:11), which includes both some Jews and some Gentiles (Romans 9:24).

All Jewish and Gentile Christians are part of the true Israel (Ephesians 2:12,19, Romans 11:17,24, Revelation 21:9,12; 1 Peter 2:9-10, John 10:16), the seed of Abraham (Galatians 3:28-29, Romans 4:16-17), the promised seed, just as Isaac was (Galatians 4:28). And so all Jewish and Gentile Christians are heirs of all of the promises made by God to Israel (Ephesians 3:6, Ephesians 2:12,19, Galatians 3:29, Romans 15:27).

(See also Romans 9:8 below)

~

(Re: Are only genetic Jews elect?)

No, the elect (the chosen) are not restricted to genetic Jews, but include both some Jews and some Gentiles (Romans 9:24, Romans 8:29-39, Ephesians 1:4-11, Colossians 3:12; 1 Thessalonians 1:4; 2 Thessalonians 2:13; Mark 13:26-27, cf. 2 Thessalonians 2:1).

~

(Re: Was the Church seen originally as only a subset of Israel?)

The Church has always been the true, spiritual Israel (Ephesians 2:12,19, Romans 11:17,24, Galatians 3:29, Revelation 21:9,12; 1 Peter 2:9-10). It is also a subset of spiritual Israel in the sense of all elect individuals (Romans 9:6-24), including those elect Jews who are not yet Christians (Romans 11:28), but who will become Christians eventually (Romans 11:26). Also, the Jews in the Church are a subset of genetic Israel, which includes both elect and nonelect Jews (Romans 9:3-24).

(See also the "Nonelect Israelites" section of Romans 11:17 below)

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