*Romans 11:27 / *Rom. 11:27 -
This refers to the New Covenant which God has made only with Israel (Jeremiah 31:31-34). Because the New Covenant is the covenant by which the Church is saved from hell (Matthew 26:28; 1 Corinthians 11:25; 2 Corinthians 3:6, Hebrews 9:15), this requires that the Church be Israel.
(See the "Tribes" section of Romans 11:17 above)
In Romans 11:26b,27b, "and shall turn away ungodliness from Jacob", and "when I shall take away their sins", refers to Jesus Christ saving all of the non-Christian, elect Jews who will still be alive at His future, Second Coming (Isaiah 4:3-4, Zechariah 12:10-14,, Zechariah 13:1,6, Romans 11:25-31).
--
*Romans 11:28 / *Rom. 11:28 -
(Re: Elect, genetic Israelites)
Romans 11:28 means that some non-Christians are the genetic descendants of Abraham (John 8:37, Acts 13:26, Romans 11:1, Acts 7:2, Acts 3:25). And some of these non-Christians are elect, and are beloved in part because of their genetic descent (Romans 11:28-29).
(See "All of the still-living" under Romans 11:17 above. Also, see Romans 1:16 and Romans 11:17 above)
~
(Re: Regarding genetic descent, has not it been scientifically proven that by now everyone has at least some genes from Jacob? And does not the Israeli Law of Return not set any minimum genetic requirement for someone to be a Jew?)
Note that the Israeli Law of Return is not the Bible, and was written by non-Christians.
Also, note that the Bible shows that at one point even individuals who were only 50% Jewish were expelled from Israel (Ezra 10:3). See also what Nehemiah 13:1-3 says.
Also, how was a genetic sample from Jacob obtained, and how was it determined to be from him and not from someone else? (For example, there are some people who claim that the Jews today are not Israelites, but "Khazars" who converted to Judaism.)
Also, what are the names of the genes that your scientists are claiming to be from Jacob, and how were these genes detected in Eskimos and Pygmies, for example?
Also, even though all nations have always been from one blood (Acts 17:26), note that God still distinguishes between Jews and Gentiles today, for He will still distinguish between them in the future (e.g. Romans 11:25-29, Revelation 11:2).
(See also Romans 11:26 and Romans 11:25 above)
~
(Re: Unsaved elect)
The "they" in Romans 11:28, in both parts of the verse, is the "they" in Romans 11:23.
Romans 11:28, like 2 Timothy 2:10, means that elect individuals (the chosen) are elect even before they become Christians (Acts 13:48b, Ephesians 1:4-11, Romans 9:11-24; 2 Thessalonians 2:13). And they are loved by God before they become Christians (Romans 5:8; 1 John 4:10).
(But see Jude 1:21 below)
~
(Concerning the gospel, they are enemies)
The blindness in part which has happened to Israel was ongoing when the apostle Paul wrote Romans 11:25 in the first century AD. And it is still ongoing. For part of Israel was, and still is, an enemy of the Gospel: "As concerning the gospel, they are enemies for your sakes" (Romans 11:28). Still today, there are some Jews who are fiercely opposed to people preaching the Gospel of Jesus Christ. For example, in one town in Israel not long ago, after some Christians had gone through the town door-to-door handing out New Testaments, a group of ultra-Orthodox Jews in the town got wind of this, and went door-to-door demanding that the people in each house hand over the New Testaments, which were then cast into a pile in the town square and set on fire until they were all burned to ashes. As horrible as this was, some of the Jews who did this could still be elect: They could still be chosen by God to come into faith in Jesus Christ at some point in the future, even though currently they are part of that part of Israel which has been spiritually blinded (Romans 11:25) and is an enemy of the Gospel (Romans 11:28).
The blindness in part which has happened to Israel will continue "until" the fullness of the Gentiles comes in (Romans 11:25b).
(See the "fulness" part of Romans 11:25 above. Also, see paragraph 3 of 1 Corinthians 9:1 below)
--
*Romans 11:29 / *Rom. 11:29 -
[Romans 11:29, KJV]
This means that God does not repent from His election of individuals to initial salvation, that is, their election (their choosing) by God to become Christians at some point during their lifetime (Romans 11:26-28, Acts 13:48b). But Christians still have to diligently do the right things to make their calling and election sure, to their ultimate salvation (2 Peter 1:10-11, Romans 2:6-8, Matthew 7:21).
(See Romans 9:11 above. Also, see the "NOSAS" section of Hebrews 3:6 below)
~
(Re: Means that Christians cannot give back their salvation?)
See the "contract analogy" under Ephesians 2:8 below.
--
*Romans 11:31 / *Rom. 11:31 -
The "now obtained mercy" and the "now not believed" in Romans 11:30-31 included the time when the apostle Paul wrote the letter of Romans in the first century AD. But there is no second "now" in Romans 11:31 in the Greek Textus Receptus, nor, no doubt, in the original Greek manuscript of the letter of Romans. For the spiritually-blinded elect Jews could not become Christians at the time that that letter was written. For Paul had just finished saying that they cannot become Christians until the fullness of the Gentiles comes in, and Jesus Christ's Second Coming occurs (Romans 11:25-26).
(See the "fulness" part pf Romans 11:25 above)
--
*Romans 11:32 / *Rom. 11:32 -
This means only that all elect individuals (Romans 11:28) are shown mercy with regard to their initial salvation by becoming Christians (Romans 9:11-24), not that all individuals will be shown mercy. For some individuals were created by God to be nonelect vessels of His wrath, who will never be shown mercy (Romans 9:11-22, Proverbs 16:4, Matthew 13:38-42, John 8:42-47).
(See the "Vessels of wrath" section of Romans 9:11 above)
--
*Romans 11:33b / *Rom. 11:33b -
(Re: The "permission" section of Proverbs 26:2 above)
Romans 11:33b would include the meaning that we should not presume to limit God's sovereignty with man-made ideas. Also, the ode to the Sovereign Creator in Romans 11:33-36 is in response to Romans 11:32, where the Sovereign "God hath concluded them all in unbelief", that is, has initially subjugated all elect individuals into unbelief, without asking their permission.
--
*Romans 12:2 / *Rom. 12:2 -
(This world)
This refers to this age (world) only presently, before Jesus Christ's future, Second Coming, when He will physically establish His Kingdom on the earth with the physically resurrected Church for 1,000 years (Revelation 19:7 to 20:6, Revelation 5:10, Revelation 2:26-29, Zechariah 14:3-21). This future Millennium will be this age's last, 1,000-year "day" (2 Peter 3:8).
(See Hebrews 1:2 below)
~
(Be not conformed to this world)
This is a hard saying, especially for young people today, for whom "political correctness" groupthink has become the gospel in the schools, universities, social media, and all other media. "Political correctness" is utterly opposed to the will of God referred to in the latter part of Romans 12:2. Compare also what James 4:4 says.
(Also, see paragraphs 6-9 of Revelation 13:15b below)
--
*Romans 12:3b / *Rom. 12:3b -
This means that every person in the church at Rome ("every man that is among you": Romans 12:3a), at the time that the apostle Paul wrote the letter of Romans in the first century AD, had been given God's miraculous gift of faith (1 Corinthians 3:5b, Ephesians 2:8, John 6:65, Hebrews 12:2) in Jesus Christ and His Gospel (1 Corinthians 15:1-4). Romans 12:3 does not mean that every person in the world has this faith, "for all men have not faith" (2 Thessalonians 3:2).
--
*Romans 12:8 / *Rom. 12:8 -
The original Greek word (haplotes: G0572) translated as "simplicity" can mean "without self-seeking" (Strong's Greek Dictionary). Compare what Matthew 6:1-4 says.
(See also 2 Corinthians 8:2 below)
--
*Romans 12:12 / *Rom. 12:12 -
The original Greek word (proskartereo: G4342) translated as "continuing instant" can mean "persevering".
--
*Romans 13:1-2 / *Rom. 13:1 -
This, like 1 Peter 2:13-14, Titus 3:1, Hebrews 13:17, and Matthew 18:17, applies to every case where human rulers (whether secular or religious) are not commanding Christians to do something contrary to what God Himself commands (Acts 5:29, Daniel 3:18, Galatians 2:5,11-14).
--
*Romans 13:4 / *Rom. 13:4 -
(Re: *Capital punishment / The *death penalty)
Romans 13:4 shows that God permits capital punishment by civil authorities. For to execute wrath against an evildoer with a sword would mean to kill the evildoer.
This does not require that everything that a government does is moral or right. For innocent people are sometimes killed by police by mistake, for example, if the police think that a person is pointing a gun at them, when in fact he is just holding a cell phone.
And even when people are tried and found guilty of a capital crime, and have sat on death row for many years, new evidence can come to light which proves that in fact they are innocent. There is even a group of lawyers who run "The Innocence Project", which repeatedly has been able to prove that some innocent people are sitting on death row. And it gets these people set free.
This is one of the biggest problems with the death penalty: Innocent people can be executed because they get railroaded through the justice system by overzealous police officers, detectives, special agents, district attorneys, prosecutors, judges, magistrates, grand juries, and petit juries, who are all just champing at the bit to quickly solve a horrible, capital crime, and see that the ultimate punishment is meted out.
So the very fact that a government can make mistakes is one very good reason for it to never employ the death penalty, even though it has the God-given right to do so (Romans 13:4).
And when Christians are the government, for example, if they are sitting on a jury for a capital crime, and must decide whether or not to vote for the death penalty, they should not vote for it. For as Christians, they should extend God's mercy to the criminal, instead of God's wrath, even if the criminal legally deserves death. Christians should follow Jesus Christ's example in John 8:3-11 in dealing with people worthy of death. For if Christians reject such mercy, and are instead eager to "mete out some justice!", then they should subsequently expect God to mete out His own justice toward them for their own sins, instead of His mercy (Matthew 7:1-2, Matthew 6:14-15). Christians must never forget that they were all under God's eternal-death penalty before He had mercy on them (Romans 6:23). They should always show all other people the same mercy which God has shown them (Ephesians 4:32).
~
(Re: But does not even Jesus Christ Himself employ the death penalty?)
Yes, and He has the right to do so as the divine, ultimate judge of everyone (John 5:22). He Himself has even killed women and children as judgment for unrepentant sin (Revelation 2:21-23). And He Himself will kill many unrepentant people at His future, Second Coming (Revelation 19:11-21).
But Christians themselves must never kill, or even harm, anyone, even if self-defense. For they have no right to do so.
(See Matthew 5:39 above)
--
*Romans 13:8-10 / *Rom. 13:8 -
(Re: How was Old Testament genocide loving?)
The relatively few parts of the Old Covenant Mosaic law which were not loving to other people (e.g. Deuteronomy 23:6) were based on the requirement that the ancient Israelites love God Himself completely (Deuteronomy 6:5). Even under the New Covenant, love for God means obedience to His commands (1 John 5:3). And love for God means loving Him more than other people (Matthew 10:37).
But no Christian should ever kill, or even harm, anyone, even if self-defense.
(See Matthew 5:39 above)
--
*Romans 13:10 / *Rom. 13:10 -
(Re: Is it possible for us to love and hate someone at the same time?)
No, for if we love someone, we will do him no harm (Romans 13:10), while if we hate someone, it is spiritually the same as murdering him (1 John 3:15).
--
*Romans 13:12 / *Rom. 13:12 -
(At hand)
See the "Soon" section of Revelation 1:1 below.
--
*Romans 13:13 / *Rom. 13:13 -
The original Greek word (komos: G2970) translated as "rioting" can mean "carousing".
The Greek word (koite: G2845, pronounced koy'-tay) translated as "chambering" can refer to the same thing as the English word "coitus", in this case fornication.
--
*Romans 14:4 / *Rom. 14:4 -
(Make him stand)
Here the original Greek has nothing equivalent to God "making" His servants to stand, in the sense of ever forcing them to continue to serve Him against their will.
(See the "robot analogy" under Philippians 2:13 below)
~
(To his own master he standeth or falleth)
See Mark 13:34 above.
--
*Romans 14:5-6 / *Rom. 14:5 / *Rom. 14:6 -
Romans 14:5 would apply to how some Christians choose to esteem the sabbath day, while others choose to esteem every day. And Romans 14:6b would apply to how some Christians choose not to eat certain foods, while others choose to eat all foods (1 Timothy 4:4).
(See the "Sabbath" section of Ephesians 2:15 below. Also, see Romans 14:14 below)
--
*Romans 14:9 / *Rom. 14:9 -
(Re: Section 5 of Revelation 20:4 below)
In Romans 14:9, "revived" should simply be "lived", just as the same Greek word (zao: G2198) is subsequently translated in the same verse as "living". The resurrection of Jesus Christ was previously referred to in the same verse using a different Greek word (anistemi: G0450) translated as "rose".
--
*Romans 14:10b-12 / *Rom. 14:10b -
See Matthew 24:48 above.
--
*Romans 14:13 / *Rom. 14:13 -
(Re: Does the use of "or" here mean that the last "or" in Revelation 13:17 means that the future Antichrist's number will be the same as his name?)
No, for in Romans 14:13 the apostle Paul can have used the original Greek words translated as "stumblingblock" (proskomma: G4348) and "occasion to fall" (skandalon: G4625) not as synonyms, but to refer to different things. For the latter Greek word can be used in the sense of something causing displeasure, such as by it simply "offending" someone (Matthew 15:12), as opposed to it having to cause someone to fall into sin. Compare the distinction in Romans 14:21.
(See also Revelation 13:18 below)
~
(Re: Is it a sin to wear sexy *clothes? I am not trying to make men fantasize or lust about me)
But such clothes could still be tempting men to do just that, tempting them to fall into sin.
[Romans 14:13,15]
~
(Re: I wear those clothes because I think that they are nice and fashionable)
[1 Peter 3:3-5a]
~
(Re: Why should my free will be restricted by arbitrary *rules? I mean this generally. Why can't I just do whatever I want regarding anything? Why can't I be free, for God's sake?)
Even the freest countries in the world will let their police bring out their guns if someone is breaking certain rules (that is, if someone is in the act of committing certain crimes). Freedom does not require lawlessness and anarchy. Indeed, lawlessness and anarchy can ultimately result in the loss of all freedoms as the most ruthless members of a society take over and enslave the rest.
The irony is that when people try to break free from God's rules and sin all that they want, instead of finding freedom they only find enslavement to sin and Satan (John 8:34; 2 Timothy 2:26, Romans 6:16-23).
Also, it has not been shown what rules are actually "arbitrary", instead of having well-thought-out reasons behind them. For example, immodest clothing can incite lust, as can certain ways of dancing. And lust is a sin (2 Peter 2:10).
Also, free will does not mean that it is good to do whatever you may want to do. For some things that you may want to do could be sins (1 Corinthians 6:9-10, Galatians 5:19-21). Any rules set up by Christians should not be arbitrary, but in line with the rules set up by Jesus Christ Himself and His apostles in the New Testament (e.g. Matthew 5:23 to 7:27; 1 Corinthians 14:37). Christians must obey these New Testament rules if they want to be saved from hell in the end (Hebrews 5:9, Matthew 7:21, Romans 2:6-8), and if they want to truly know Jesus and God the Father presently (John 14:21-24, John 15:14), instead of drifting off into some no-rules, la-la land of human invention (2 Timothy 4:3-4) or even demonic invention (1 Timothy 4:1-2).
Without rules from God, no Christian would know for sure what is a sin and what is not. We cannot always go by our own conscience, for "he that trusteth in his own heart is a fool" (Proverbs 28:26). And "there is a way which seemeth right unto a man, but the end thereof are the ways of death" (Proverbs 14:12). God gave the Bible to Christians "for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness: That the man of God may be perfect" (2 Timothy 3:16-17).
--
*Romans 14:14-22 / *Rom. 14:14 -
(Re: *Foods / *Meats)
Under the New Covenant, all foods are in themselves okay for all Christians, whether Jews or Gentiles, to eat (1 Timothy 4:4-5, Romans 14:14,20, Mark 7:18-19; 1 Corinthians 10:25-30, Colossians 2:16-17, Hebrews 9:10). For under the New Covenant, no meat is defiled in itself (Romans 14:14), all meats are pure (Romans 14:20). Every meat is good, and no meat is to be refused if it is received with thanksgiving to God, for it is sanctified by the Word of God and prayer (1 Timothy 4:4-5). Let no one therefore judge you regarding what meat you eat (Colossians 2:16-17, Hebrews 9:10). For the Kingdom of God does not consist of what meat we eat or do not eat, but consists of righteousness, peace, and joy in God's Holy Spirit (Romans 14:17). Happy are those Christians, whether Jews or Gentiles, who do not condemn themselves over what meat they eat (Romans 14:22), for no meat can defile them (Mark 7:18-19).
(See also Leviticus 11(space) above, and the "Law" section of Ephesians 2:15 below)
--
*Romans 14:17 / *Rom. 14:17 -
(Re: Means that the Kingdom of God is not physical?)
See paragraphs 3-5 of Acts 1:6 above.
--
*Romans 15:3 / *Rom. 15:3 -
This is quoting from Psalms 69:9, and so means that Psalms 69 is spoken by Jesus Christ Himself, just as Psalms 69:21 was fulfilled at His Crucifixion (Matthew 27:34). Psalms 22 is similarly spoken by Jesus Christ Himself at His Crucifixion (Matthew 27:46).
--
*Romans 15:8 / *Rom. 15:8 -
See Romans 1:16 above.
--
*Romans 15:12 / *Rom. 15:12 -
(Re: Means that Isaiah 11:6-10 is fulfilled?)
The apostle Paul quotes Isaiah 11:10 in Romans 15:12, just as he quotes other Old Testament verses in Romans 15:9-12, only to support the general principle that God had always intended to save Gentiles (Romans 15:9) and not only Jews (Romans 15:8). And so the salvation of Gentiles going on in Paul's day (Romans 11:13-24) in the first century AD (and still today) was God's will. In Romans 15:12, Paul purposely leaves out the "In that day" part of Isaiah 11:10, just as he purposely does not refer to the animals in Isaiah 11:6-9, because he is not referring to the specific time frame of Isaiah 11:6-16. For the end of the suffering of animals (Isaiah 11:6-9) will not happen until the (still future) physical resurrection of the Church (Romans 8:19-25), right after which the Millennium will occur on the earth (Revelation 20:4-6, Revelation 5:10, Revelation 2:26-29). So Isaiah 11:6-9 refers to the future time of the Millennium, and so Isaiah 11:10-16 does as well.
--
*Romans 15:13 / *Rom. 15:13 -
This is not referring to the false joy, false peace, and false hope of a pre-tribulation rapture, but to the true joy, true peace, and true hope which Christians can have even if they have to go through tribulation (1 Peter 4:12-13; 2 Corinthians 7:4b, Romans 12:12, John 16:33; 2 Corinthians 1:3-7).
(See also section 2 of Titus 2:13 below. And see 1 Thessalonians 4:18 below, and Matthew 24:31 above)
--
*Romans 15:19 / *Rom. 15:19 -
(Re: Why will Jesus not give *signs and wonders?)
Note that Jesus Christ does give signs and wonders (Romans 15:19; 2 Corinthians 12:12, Acts 5:12, Acts 14:3, John 20:30, Mark 16:17,20, Hebrews 2:4, Acts 2:22,43, Acts 4:30, Acts 6:8, Acts 8:6,13, Acts 15:12, Acts 19:11; 1 Corinthians 12:10,28).
Matthew 12:39, Matthew 16:4, Mark 8:12, and Luke 11:29 simply mean that Jesus Christ does not perform signs on the command, the requirement, of non-Christians, as in them saying, in effect: "Unless you perform a sign, we will not believe in you" (compare Mark 8:11, Matthew 12:38, and Matthew 16:1).
Also, John 12:37-41 shows that even though Jesus Christ did perform signs and wonders in their sight, some people still could not believe in Him; while other people did believe in Jesus because of His signs and wonders (John 2:11,23, John 3:2, John 6:2).
(See also 1 Corinthians 12:8 below)
--
*Romans 15:21 / *Rom. 15:21 -
This is quoting from Isaiah 52:15. Contrast what Isaiah 6:9-10 and Mark 4:11-12 say.
--
*Romans 15:22 / *Rom. 15:22 -
This hindrance would continue until he reached his goal.
(See Acts 28:13 above)
--
*Romans 16:4 / *Rom. 16:4 -
(Re: Should it say "ekklesia" instead of "churches"?)
Note that changing "churches" back to the original-Greek "ekklesia" (G1577) does not affect the meaning of the verse.
(See also sections 8-10 of Matthew 16:18 above)
--
*Romans 16:7 / *Rom. 16:7 -
This does not mean that Andronicus and Junia themselves were apostles, but that they were held in high regard by the apostles.
--
*Romans 16:19 / *Rom. 16:19 -
The original Greek word (akeraios: G0185) translated as "simple" can mean "innocent, unmixed" (Strong's Greek Dictionary).
--
*Romans 16:20 / *Rom. 16:20 -
This says that the devil will be under the feet of the Church, which could be symbolized by the moon under the feet of the woman in Revelation 12:1.
(See Revelation 12 below. Also, see the "blood moon" section of Revelation 6:12 below)
--
*Romans 16:25 / *Rom. 16:25 -
(Mystery)
See Ephesians 3:4 below.
~
(Power to stablish you)
See Philippians 2:13 below.
--
*1 Corinthians 1:2 / *1 Cor. 1:2 -
(Sanctified)
See the "Sanctified" section of Hebrews 10:10 below.
--
*1 Corinthians 1:8 / *1 Cor. 1:8 -
(Re: OSAS?)
See Philippians 1:6 below.
~
(Re: Full preterism?)
1 Corinthians 1:8 does not require that the Corinthian Christians in the first century AD would be preserved physically "alive" until Jesus Christ's Second Coming, which remains unfulfilled today. It only requires that they could be "blameless" until the Second Coming, no matter whether they were still physically alive by that time or had been physically dead for thousands of years.
(See the "Full Preterism?" section of 2 Thessalonians 1:6 below)
--
*1 Corinthians 1:10 / *1 Cor. 1:10 -
This commands Christians to close their divisions now, for it is possible to do so if every Christian is willing to take into account every word of the Bible (Matthew 4:4; 2 Timothy 3:16) when interpreting any one verse (Isaiah 28:9-10; 1 Corinthians 2:13).
(See also Matthew 4:4 and Isaiah 28:9 above)
-
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Dec 13, 2018
This refers to the New Covenant which God has made only with Israel (Jeremiah 31:31-34). Because the New Covenant is the covenant by which the Church is saved from hell (Matthew 26:28; 1 Corinthians 11:25; 2 Corinthians 3:6, Hebrews 9:15), this requires that the Church be Israel.
(See the "Tribes" section of Romans 11:17 above)
In Romans 11:26b,27b, "and shall turn away ungodliness from Jacob", and "when I shall take away their sins", refers to Jesus Christ saving all of the non-Christian, elect Jews who will still be alive at His future, Second Coming (Isaiah 4:3-4, Zechariah 12:10-14,, Zechariah 13:1,6, Romans 11:25-31).
--
*Romans 11:28 / *Rom. 11:28 -
(Re: Elect, genetic Israelites)
Romans 11:28 means that some non-Christians are the genetic descendants of Abraham (John 8:37, Acts 13:26, Romans 11:1, Acts 7:2, Acts 3:25). And some of these non-Christians are elect, and are beloved in part because of their genetic descent (Romans 11:28-29).
(See "All of the still-living" under Romans 11:17 above. Also, see Romans 1:16 and Romans 11:17 above)
~
(Re: Regarding genetic descent, has not it been scientifically proven that by now everyone has at least some genes from Jacob? And does not the Israeli Law of Return not set any minimum genetic requirement for someone to be a Jew?)
Note that the Israeli Law of Return is not the Bible, and was written by non-Christians.
Also, note that the Bible shows that at one point even individuals who were only 50% Jewish were expelled from Israel (Ezra 10:3). See also what Nehemiah 13:1-3 says.
Also, how was a genetic sample from Jacob obtained, and how was it determined to be from him and not from someone else? (For example, there are some people who claim that the Jews today are not Israelites, but "Khazars" who converted to Judaism.)
Also, what are the names of the genes that your scientists are claiming to be from Jacob, and how were these genes detected in Eskimos and Pygmies, for example?
Also, even though all nations have always been from one blood (Acts 17:26), note that God still distinguishes between Jews and Gentiles today, for He will still distinguish between them in the future (e.g. Romans 11:25-29, Revelation 11:2).
(See also Romans 11:26 and Romans 11:25 above)
~
(Re: Unsaved elect)
The "they" in Romans 11:28, in both parts of the verse, is the "they" in Romans 11:23.
Romans 11:28, like 2 Timothy 2:10, means that elect individuals (the chosen) are elect even before they become Christians (Acts 13:48b, Ephesians 1:4-11, Romans 9:11-24; 2 Thessalonians 2:13). And they are loved by God before they become Christians (Romans 5:8; 1 John 4:10).
(But see Jude 1:21 below)
~
(Concerning the gospel, they are enemies)
The blindness in part which has happened to Israel was ongoing when the apostle Paul wrote Romans 11:25 in the first century AD. And it is still ongoing. For part of Israel was, and still is, an enemy of the Gospel: "As concerning the gospel, they are enemies for your sakes" (Romans 11:28). Still today, there are some Jews who are fiercely opposed to people preaching the Gospel of Jesus Christ. For example, in one town in Israel not long ago, after some Christians had gone through the town door-to-door handing out New Testaments, a group of ultra-Orthodox Jews in the town got wind of this, and went door-to-door demanding that the people in each house hand over the New Testaments, which were then cast into a pile in the town square and set on fire until they were all burned to ashes. As horrible as this was, some of the Jews who did this could still be elect: They could still be chosen by God to come into faith in Jesus Christ at some point in the future, even though currently they are part of that part of Israel which has been spiritually blinded (Romans 11:25) and is an enemy of the Gospel (Romans 11:28).
The blindness in part which has happened to Israel will continue "until" the fullness of the Gentiles comes in (Romans 11:25b).
(See the "fulness" part of Romans 11:25 above. Also, see paragraph 3 of 1 Corinthians 9:1 below)
--
*Romans 11:29 / *Rom. 11:29 -
[Romans 11:29, KJV]
This means that God does not repent from His election of individuals to initial salvation, that is, their election (their choosing) by God to become Christians at some point during their lifetime (Romans 11:26-28, Acts 13:48b). But Christians still have to diligently do the right things to make their calling and election sure, to their ultimate salvation (2 Peter 1:10-11, Romans 2:6-8, Matthew 7:21).
(See Romans 9:11 above. Also, see the "NOSAS" section of Hebrews 3:6 below)
~
(Re: Means that Christians cannot give back their salvation?)
See the "contract analogy" under Ephesians 2:8 below.
--
*Romans 11:31 / *Rom. 11:31 -
The "now obtained mercy" and the "now not believed" in Romans 11:30-31 included the time when the apostle Paul wrote the letter of Romans in the first century AD. But there is no second "now" in Romans 11:31 in the Greek Textus Receptus, nor, no doubt, in the original Greek manuscript of the letter of Romans. For the spiritually-blinded elect Jews could not become Christians at the time that that letter was written. For Paul had just finished saying that they cannot become Christians until the fullness of the Gentiles comes in, and Jesus Christ's Second Coming occurs (Romans 11:25-26).
(See the "fulness" part pf Romans 11:25 above)
--
*Romans 11:32 / *Rom. 11:32 -
This means only that all elect individuals (Romans 11:28) are shown mercy with regard to their initial salvation by becoming Christians (Romans 9:11-24), not that all individuals will be shown mercy. For some individuals were created by God to be nonelect vessels of His wrath, who will never be shown mercy (Romans 9:11-22, Proverbs 16:4, Matthew 13:38-42, John 8:42-47).
(See the "Vessels of wrath" section of Romans 9:11 above)
--
*Romans 11:33b / *Rom. 11:33b -
(Re: The "permission" section of Proverbs 26:2 above)
Romans 11:33b would include the meaning that we should not presume to limit God's sovereignty with man-made ideas. Also, the ode to the Sovereign Creator in Romans 11:33-36 is in response to Romans 11:32, where the Sovereign "God hath concluded them all in unbelief", that is, has initially subjugated all elect individuals into unbelief, without asking their permission.
--
*Romans 12:2 / *Rom. 12:2 -
(This world)
This refers to this age (world) only presently, before Jesus Christ's future, Second Coming, when He will physically establish His Kingdom on the earth with the physically resurrected Church for 1,000 years (Revelation 19:7 to 20:6, Revelation 5:10, Revelation 2:26-29, Zechariah 14:3-21). This future Millennium will be this age's last, 1,000-year "day" (2 Peter 3:8).
(See Hebrews 1:2 below)
~
(Be not conformed to this world)
This is a hard saying, especially for young people today, for whom "political correctness" groupthink has become the gospel in the schools, universities, social media, and all other media. "Political correctness" is utterly opposed to the will of God referred to in the latter part of Romans 12:2. Compare also what James 4:4 says.
(Also, see paragraphs 6-9 of Revelation 13:15b below)
--
*Romans 12:3b / *Rom. 12:3b -
This means that every person in the church at Rome ("every man that is among you": Romans 12:3a), at the time that the apostle Paul wrote the letter of Romans in the first century AD, had been given God's miraculous gift of faith (1 Corinthians 3:5b, Ephesians 2:8, John 6:65, Hebrews 12:2) in Jesus Christ and His Gospel (1 Corinthians 15:1-4). Romans 12:3 does not mean that every person in the world has this faith, "for all men have not faith" (2 Thessalonians 3:2).
--
*Romans 12:8 / *Rom. 12:8 -
The original Greek word (haplotes: G0572) translated as "simplicity" can mean "without self-seeking" (Strong's Greek Dictionary). Compare what Matthew 6:1-4 says.
(See also 2 Corinthians 8:2 below)
--
*Romans 12:12 / *Rom. 12:12 -
The original Greek word (proskartereo: G4342) translated as "continuing instant" can mean "persevering".
--
*Romans 13:1-2 / *Rom. 13:1 -
This, like 1 Peter 2:13-14, Titus 3:1, Hebrews 13:17, and Matthew 18:17, applies to every case where human rulers (whether secular or religious) are not commanding Christians to do something contrary to what God Himself commands (Acts 5:29, Daniel 3:18, Galatians 2:5,11-14).
--
*Romans 13:4 / *Rom. 13:4 -
(Re: *Capital punishment / The *death penalty)
Romans 13:4 shows that God permits capital punishment by civil authorities. For to execute wrath against an evildoer with a sword would mean to kill the evildoer.
This does not require that everything that a government does is moral or right. For innocent people are sometimes killed by police by mistake, for example, if the police think that a person is pointing a gun at them, when in fact he is just holding a cell phone.
And even when people are tried and found guilty of a capital crime, and have sat on death row for many years, new evidence can come to light which proves that in fact they are innocent. There is even a group of lawyers who run "The Innocence Project", which repeatedly has been able to prove that some innocent people are sitting on death row. And it gets these people set free.
This is one of the biggest problems with the death penalty: Innocent people can be executed because they get railroaded through the justice system by overzealous police officers, detectives, special agents, district attorneys, prosecutors, judges, magistrates, grand juries, and petit juries, who are all just champing at the bit to quickly solve a horrible, capital crime, and see that the ultimate punishment is meted out.
So the very fact that a government can make mistakes is one very good reason for it to never employ the death penalty, even though it has the God-given right to do so (Romans 13:4).
And when Christians are the government, for example, if they are sitting on a jury for a capital crime, and must decide whether or not to vote for the death penalty, they should not vote for it. For as Christians, they should extend God's mercy to the criminal, instead of God's wrath, even if the criminal legally deserves death. Christians should follow Jesus Christ's example in John 8:3-11 in dealing with people worthy of death. For if Christians reject such mercy, and are instead eager to "mete out some justice!", then they should subsequently expect God to mete out His own justice toward them for their own sins, instead of His mercy (Matthew 7:1-2, Matthew 6:14-15). Christians must never forget that they were all under God's eternal-death penalty before He had mercy on them (Romans 6:23). They should always show all other people the same mercy which God has shown them (Ephesians 4:32).
~
(Re: But does not even Jesus Christ Himself employ the death penalty?)
Yes, and He has the right to do so as the divine, ultimate judge of everyone (John 5:22). He Himself has even killed women and children as judgment for unrepentant sin (Revelation 2:21-23). And He Himself will kill many unrepentant people at His future, Second Coming (Revelation 19:11-21).
But Christians themselves must never kill, or even harm, anyone, even if self-defense. For they have no right to do so.
(See Matthew 5:39 above)
--
*Romans 13:8-10 / *Rom. 13:8 -
(Re: How was Old Testament genocide loving?)
The relatively few parts of the Old Covenant Mosaic law which were not loving to other people (e.g. Deuteronomy 23:6) were based on the requirement that the ancient Israelites love God Himself completely (Deuteronomy 6:5). Even under the New Covenant, love for God means obedience to His commands (1 John 5:3). And love for God means loving Him more than other people (Matthew 10:37).
But no Christian should ever kill, or even harm, anyone, even if self-defense.
(See Matthew 5:39 above)
--
*Romans 13:10 / *Rom. 13:10 -
(Re: Is it possible for us to love and hate someone at the same time?)
No, for if we love someone, we will do him no harm (Romans 13:10), while if we hate someone, it is spiritually the same as murdering him (1 John 3:15).
--
*Romans 13:12 / *Rom. 13:12 -
(At hand)
See the "Soon" section of Revelation 1:1 below.
--
*Romans 13:13 / *Rom. 13:13 -
The original Greek word (komos: G2970) translated as "rioting" can mean "carousing".
The Greek word (koite: G2845, pronounced koy'-tay) translated as "chambering" can refer to the same thing as the English word "coitus", in this case fornication.
--
*Romans 14:4 / *Rom. 14:4 -
(Make him stand)
Here the original Greek has nothing equivalent to God "making" His servants to stand, in the sense of ever forcing them to continue to serve Him against their will.
(See the "robot analogy" under Philippians 2:13 below)
~
(To his own master he standeth or falleth)
See Mark 13:34 above.
--
*Romans 14:5-6 / *Rom. 14:5 / *Rom. 14:6 -
Romans 14:5 would apply to how some Christians choose to esteem the sabbath day, while others choose to esteem every day. And Romans 14:6b would apply to how some Christians choose not to eat certain foods, while others choose to eat all foods (1 Timothy 4:4).
(See the "Sabbath" section of Ephesians 2:15 below. Also, see Romans 14:14 below)
--
*Romans 14:9 / *Rom. 14:9 -
(Re: Section 5 of Revelation 20:4 below)
In Romans 14:9, "revived" should simply be "lived", just as the same Greek word (zao: G2198) is subsequently translated in the same verse as "living". The resurrection of Jesus Christ was previously referred to in the same verse using a different Greek word (anistemi: G0450) translated as "rose".
--
*Romans 14:10b-12 / *Rom. 14:10b -
See Matthew 24:48 above.
--
*Romans 14:13 / *Rom. 14:13 -
(Re: Does the use of "or" here mean that the last "or" in Revelation 13:17 means that the future Antichrist's number will be the same as his name?)
No, for in Romans 14:13 the apostle Paul can have used the original Greek words translated as "stumblingblock" (proskomma: G4348) and "occasion to fall" (skandalon: G4625) not as synonyms, but to refer to different things. For the latter Greek word can be used in the sense of something causing displeasure, such as by it simply "offending" someone (Matthew 15:12), as opposed to it having to cause someone to fall into sin. Compare the distinction in Romans 14:21.
(See also Revelation 13:18 below)
~
(Re: Is it a sin to wear sexy *clothes? I am not trying to make men fantasize or lust about me)
But such clothes could still be tempting men to do just that, tempting them to fall into sin.
[Romans 14:13,15]
~
(Re: I wear those clothes because I think that they are nice and fashionable)
[1 Peter 3:3-5a]
~
(Re: Why should my free will be restricted by arbitrary *rules? I mean this generally. Why can't I just do whatever I want regarding anything? Why can't I be free, for God's sake?)
Even the freest countries in the world will let their police bring out their guns if someone is breaking certain rules (that is, if someone is in the act of committing certain crimes). Freedom does not require lawlessness and anarchy. Indeed, lawlessness and anarchy can ultimately result in the loss of all freedoms as the most ruthless members of a society take over and enslave the rest.
The irony is that when people try to break free from God's rules and sin all that they want, instead of finding freedom they only find enslavement to sin and Satan (John 8:34; 2 Timothy 2:26, Romans 6:16-23).
Also, it has not been shown what rules are actually "arbitrary", instead of having well-thought-out reasons behind them. For example, immodest clothing can incite lust, as can certain ways of dancing. And lust is a sin (2 Peter 2:10).
Also, free will does not mean that it is good to do whatever you may want to do. For some things that you may want to do could be sins (1 Corinthians 6:9-10, Galatians 5:19-21). Any rules set up by Christians should not be arbitrary, but in line with the rules set up by Jesus Christ Himself and His apostles in the New Testament (e.g. Matthew 5:23 to 7:27; 1 Corinthians 14:37). Christians must obey these New Testament rules if they want to be saved from hell in the end (Hebrews 5:9, Matthew 7:21, Romans 2:6-8), and if they want to truly know Jesus and God the Father presently (John 14:21-24, John 15:14), instead of drifting off into some no-rules, la-la land of human invention (2 Timothy 4:3-4) or even demonic invention (1 Timothy 4:1-2).
Without rules from God, no Christian would know for sure what is a sin and what is not. We cannot always go by our own conscience, for "he that trusteth in his own heart is a fool" (Proverbs 28:26). And "there is a way which seemeth right unto a man, but the end thereof are the ways of death" (Proverbs 14:12). God gave the Bible to Christians "for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness: That the man of God may be perfect" (2 Timothy 3:16-17).
--
*Romans 14:14-22 / *Rom. 14:14 -
(Re: *Foods / *Meats)
Under the New Covenant, all foods are in themselves okay for all Christians, whether Jews or Gentiles, to eat (1 Timothy 4:4-5, Romans 14:14,20, Mark 7:18-19; 1 Corinthians 10:25-30, Colossians 2:16-17, Hebrews 9:10). For under the New Covenant, no meat is defiled in itself (Romans 14:14), all meats are pure (Romans 14:20). Every meat is good, and no meat is to be refused if it is received with thanksgiving to God, for it is sanctified by the Word of God and prayer (1 Timothy 4:4-5). Let no one therefore judge you regarding what meat you eat (Colossians 2:16-17, Hebrews 9:10). For the Kingdom of God does not consist of what meat we eat or do not eat, but consists of righteousness, peace, and joy in God's Holy Spirit (Romans 14:17). Happy are those Christians, whether Jews or Gentiles, who do not condemn themselves over what meat they eat (Romans 14:22), for no meat can defile them (Mark 7:18-19).
(See also Leviticus 11(space) above, and the "Law" section of Ephesians 2:15 below)
--
*Romans 14:17 / *Rom. 14:17 -
(Re: Means that the Kingdom of God is not physical?)
See paragraphs 3-5 of Acts 1:6 above.
--
*Romans 15:3 / *Rom. 15:3 -
This is quoting from Psalms 69:9, and so means that Psalms 69 is spoken by Jesus Christ Himself, just as Psalms 69:21 was fulfilled at His Crucifixion (Matthew 27:34). Psalms 22 is similarly spoken by Jesus Christ Himself at His Crucifixion (Matthew 27:46).
--
*Romans 15:8 / *Rom. 15:8 -
See Romans 1:16 above.
--
*Romans 15:12 / *Rom. 15:12 -
(Re: Means that Isaiah 11:6-10 is fulfilled?)
The apostle Paul quotes Isaiah 11:10 in Romans 15:12, just as he quotes other Old Testament verses in Romans 15:9-12, only to support the general principle that God had always intended to save Gentiles (Romans 15:9) and not only Jews (Romans 15:8). And so the salvation of Gentiles going on in Paul's day (Romans 11:13-24) in the first century AD (and still today) was God's will. In Romans 15:12, Paul purposely leaves out the "In that day" part of Isaiah 11:10, just as he purposely does not refer to the animals in Isaiah 11:6-9, because he is not referring to the specific time frame of Isaiah 11:6-16. For the end of the suffering of animals (Isaiah 11:6-9) will not happen until the (still future) physical resurrection of the Church (Romans 8:19-25), right after which the Millennium will occur on the earth (Revelation 20:4-6, Revelation 5:10, Revelation 2:26-29). So Isaiah 11:6-9 refers to the future time of the Millennium, and so Isaiah 11:10-16 does as well.
--
*Romans 15:13 / *Rom. 15:13 -
This is not referring to the false joy, false peace, and false hope of a pre-tribulation rapture, but to the true joy, true peace, and true hope which Christians can have even if they have to go through tribulation (1 Peter 4:12-13; 2 Corinthians 7:4b, Romans 12:12, John 16:33; 2 Corinthians 1:3-7).
(See also section 2 of Titus 2:13 below. And see 1 Thessalonians 4:18 below, and Matthew 24:31 above)
--
*Romans 15:19 / *Rom. 15:19 -
(Re: Why will Jesus not give *signs and wonders?)
Note that Jesus Christ does give signs and wonders (Romans 15:19; 2 Corinthians 12:12, Acts 5:12, Acts 14:3, John 20:30, Mark 16:17,20, Hebrews 2:4, Acts 2:22,43, Acts 4:30, Acts 6:8, Acts 8:6,13, Acts 15:12, Acts 19:11; 1 Corinthians 12:10,28).
Matthew 12:39, Matthew 16:4, Mark 8:12, and Luke 11:29 simply mean that Jesus Christ does not perform signs on the command, the requirement, of non-Christians, as in them saying, in effect: "Unless you perform a sign, we will not believe in you" (compare Mark 8:11, Matthew 12:38, and Matthew 16:1).
Also, John 12:37-41 shows that even though Jesus Christ did perform signs and wonders in their sight, some people still could not believe in Him; while other people did believe in Jesus because of His signs and wonders (John 2:11,23, John 3:2, John 6:2).
(See also 1 Corinthians 12:8 below)
--
*Romans 15:21 / *Rom. 15:21 -
This is quoting from Isaiah 52:15. Contrast what Isaiah 6:9-10 and Mark 4:11-12 say.
--
*Romans 15:22 / *Rom. 15:22 -
This hindrance would continue until he reached his goal.
(See Acts 28:13 above)
--
*Romans 16:4 / *Rom. 16:4 -
(Re: Should it say "ekklesia" instead of "churches"?)
Note that changing "churches" back to the original-Greek "ekklesia" (G1577) does not affect the meaning of the verse.
(See also sections 8-10 of Matthew 16:18 above)
--
*Romans 16:7 / *Rom. 16:7 -
This does not mean that Andronicus and Junia themselves were apostles, but that they were held in high regard by the apostles.
--
*Romans 16:19 / *Rom. 16:19 -
The original Greek word (akeraios: G0185) translated as "simple" can mean "innocent, unmixed" (Strong's Greek Dictionary).
--
*Romans 16:20 / *Rom. 16:20 -
This says that the devil will be under the feet of the Church, which could be symbolized by the moon under the feet of the woman in Revelation 12:1.
(See Revelation 12 below. Also, see the "blood moon" section of Revelation 6:12 below)
--
*Romans 16:25 / *Rom. 16:25 -
(Mystery)
See Ephesians 3:4 below.
~
(Power to stablish you)
See Philippians 2:13 below.
--
*1 Corinthians 1:2 / *1 Cor. 1:2 -
(Sanctified)
See the "Sanctified" section of Hebrews 10:10 below.
--
*1 Corinthians 1:8 / *1 Cor. 1:8 -
(Re: OSAS?)
See Philippians 1:6 below.
~
(Re: Full preterism?)
1 Corinthians 1:8 does not require that the Corinthian Christians in the first century AD would be preserved physically "alive" until Jesus Christ's Second Coming, which remains unfulfilled today. It only requires that they could be "blameless" until the Second Coming, no matter whether they were still physically alive by that time or had been physically dead for thousands of years.
(See the "Full Preterism?" section of 2 Thessalonians 1:6 below)
--
*1 Corinthians 1:10 / *1 Cor. 1:10 -
This commands Christians to close their divisions now, for it is possible to do so if every Christian is willing to take into account every word of the Bible (Matthew 4:4; 2 Timothy 3:16) when interpreting any one verse (Isaiah 28:9-10; 1 Corinthians 2:13).
(See also Matthew 4:4 and Isaiah 28:9 above)
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