(Re: Is the third heaven not a place, but a future time?)
No, the third heaven is not a future time, but a past, present and future place, just as the first two heavens are past, present and future places.
The original Hebrew word (shamayim: H8064) translated as "heaven" in Genesis 1:20, which refers to the atmosphere, is the same Hebrew word translated as "heaven" in Ecclesiastes 5:2, which refers to the place where God's throne is, the spiritual realm (Revelation 4:2), the third heaven (2 Corinthians 12:2b); just as the same Hebrew word is used to refer to outer space where the stars reside (Genesis 26:4). So the same Hebrew word can refer to each of the three heavens, which all exist at the same time.
The same is true in the Greek. The original Greek word (ouranos: G3772) translated as "air" in Matthew 6:26, which refers to the atmosphere, is the same Greek word translated as "heaven" in Matthew 5:45, which refers to the place where God's throne is, the spiritual realm (Revelation 4:2), the third heaven (2 Corinthians 12:2b); just as the same Greek word is used to refer to outer space where the stars reside (Hebrews 11:12). So the same Greek word can refer to each of the three heavens, which all exist at the same time.
Also, any future age can also contain three heavens at the same time, if the earth and its atmosphere continue to exist along with outer space and the spiritual realm; just as any age before the present one could have contained three heavens at the same time, if the earth and its atmosphere existed along with outer space and the spiritual realm.
The future New Heaven and New Earth (Revelation 21:1) could mean a new surface for the earth and a new atmosphere, or first heaven, while the second heaven, outer space, remains unrenewed, and the third heaven, the spiritual realm, needs no renewal.
The second heaven (outer space, the physical universe) could have been created by God some nine billion years before the first heaven (the earth's atmosphere) was created when God created the planet earth some five billion years ago. And the third heaven (the created spiritual realm) could have existed for untold ages before the creation of our physical universe by God some fourteen billion years ago. So there could have been two higher levels of heaven for billions of years before the lowest level was created by God with the planet earth.
The first heaven, the earth's atmosphere, will be destroyed by God at the Great White Throne Judgment (Revelation 20:11) and replaced when a New Earth, as in a new surface for the earth, is created by God (Revelation 21:1). But the second heaven, outer space, could continue unchanged at the Great White Throne Judgment and then for billions of years afterward until God eventually decides to create a new universe. Even science admits that this universe will eventually die. As it expands, it will eventually get so spread out, and so cold and dark, that nothing will survive. And then even the protons making up all atoms will eventually decay away so that there will be nothing but empty, cold blackness forever. Of course, God will not have to wait that long to roll up this dying (entropic) universe and replace it with a new one (cf. Psalms 102:25-27). He could do that long before it reaches a completely decrepit state in which physical life will no longer be possible.
And God may never have to replace the third heaven, the created spiritual realm. It could remain unchanged through entire series of future physical universes for untold trillions and quadrillions of years, just as it could have existed in the past for untold trillions and quadrillions of years through entire series of past physical universes before the one which we are in now was created by God only some fourteen billion years ago ("only" when compared with eternity past).
(See also Romans 1:20 above)
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*2 Corinthians 12:7-10 / *2 Cor. 12:7 -
The apostle Paul's thorn in the flesh (2 Corinthians 12:7-10) was not a sin, but a physical infirmity, possibly having to do with his eyes. Compare what Galatians 4:13-15 says. In Galatians 4:14 the original Greek word (peirasmos: G3986) translated as "temptation" . . .
(See "does not have to mean" under paragraph 4 of section 2 of 1 Timothy 3:7 below)
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*2 Corinthians 12:20 / *2 Cor. 12:20 -
The original Greek word (phusiosis: G5450) translated as "swellings" can mean either "haughtiness", that is, being "puffed up" oneself (1 Corinthians 4:18-19; 1 Corinthians 5:2; 1 Corinthians 8:1; 1 Corinthians 13:4, Colossians 2:18), and/or it can mean what even in English is called "puffery", in this case in the sense of an exaggerated exalting of one factional leader (in a church) over another (1 Corinthians 4:6b).
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*2 Corinthians 13:1 / *2 Cor. 13:1 -
See Genesis 41:32 above.
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*2 Corinthians 13:5 / *2 Cor. 13:5 -
(Reprobates / G0096)
See 2 Timothy 3:8 below.
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*2 Corinthians 13:10 / *2 Cor. 13:10 -
The original Greek word (apotomos: G0664) translated as "sharpness", like the English word, can mean "severity". Compare the word's use in Titus 1:13.
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*Galatians addresses the problem of Christians mistakenly trying to keep the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law (Galatians 4:21 to 5:8, Galatians 3:2-25, Galatians 2:11-21).
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(Re: Was the complaint instead only that they were allowing themselves to be *circumcised?)
No, for physical circumcision was part of the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law (Exodus 12:48). So if Christians still needed to keep the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law, then they would still need to be physically circumcised. But Galatians shows that if Christians get physically circumcised or perform any other part of the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law thinking that they have to because it is part of the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law (Galatians 5:2-4), then they become debtors to keep every part of the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law (Galatians 5:3). They place themselves under its curse (Galatians 3:10). They fall from grace (Galatians 5:4).
(See also the "Circumcision" section of Ephesians 2:15 below)
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*Galatians 1:4 / *Gal. 1:4 -
(Re: This world)
See Romans 12:2 above.
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*Galatians 1:6-9 / *Gal. 1:6 -
Here the false "other gospel" is the idea that any Christians, whether Jews or Gentiles, have to or should even want to keep the abolished letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law (Galatians 4:21 to 5:8, Galatians 3:2-25, Galatians 2:11-21, Ephesians 2:15-16, Colossians 2:14-17, Romans 7:6; 2 Corinthians 3:6-18, Hebrews 7:18-19).
(See the "Law" section of Ephesians 2:15 below)
There is only one true Gospel (Galatians 1:6-9), which covers both initial salvation (Ephesians 2:8-9) and ultimate salvation (Romans 2:6-8), both initial justification/righteousness (Romans 4:1-5) and ultimate justification/righteousness (James 2:24). Galatians 1:6-9 is not contradicting the truth of this Gospel, that...
(See Romans 2:6 above)
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(Re: *Legalism)
Grace sets Christians free from the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law (Romans 6:14b, John 1:17, Romans 7:6), but not from Jesus Christ's New Covenant law (Galatians 6:2, John 15:10; 1 Corinthians 9:21, Jeremiah 31:31-34, Matthew 26:28), the commandments of which (John 14:15) are those He gave, for example, in the Sermon on the Mount (Matthew 5:19 to 7:29) and in the epistles of the apostle Paul (1 Corinthians 14:37). For while Christians are initially saved by grace by faith only (Ephesians 2:8-9, Titus 3:5, Romans 4:1-5) and do not have to obey the letter of the commandments of the Old Covenant Mosaic law to obtain ultimate salvation (Galatians 2:16, Romans 7:6), they do have to obey Jesus' New Covenant commandments to obtain ultimate salvation (Hebrews 5:9, Matthew 7:21, Romans 2:6-8).
It is by Christians obeying Jesus Christ's New Covenant commandments, whether obeying them currently (1 John 3:24) or during the future Tribulation of Matthew 24 and Revelation chapters 6 to 18 (Revelation 14:12-13, Revelation 12:17b), that Christians can be sure that they are truly loving Jesus (John 14:21-24; 1 John 5:3) and remaining in His love (John 15:10, John 14:21b,23b, Jude 1:21). Christians must fear ultimately losing their salvation, ultimately being cut off the same as non-Christians if they do not continue in His goodness (Romans 11:20-22, Luke 12:45-46).
(See also Hebrews 10:26 and Jude 1:21 below)
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(Re: Are we now under a stricter law?)
See the "stricter" section of Matthew 5:19 above.
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(Re: Is the Old Covenant Mosaic law the *best law?)
No, the best law is not the Old Covenant Mosaic law (Hebrews 7:18-19), but Jesus Christ's New Covenant/New Testament law (Hebrews 8:6-13, Galatians 6:2, John 15:10).
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(Re: Is Jesus' law simply to love?)
Love must have deeds (1 John 3:18, John 14:21-24).
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*Galatians 1:8-9 / *Gal. 1:8 -
(Re: *Judaizers)
Galatians 1:8-9 by itself applies to more than Judaizers, for by itself it applies to any other gospel. But in its context it is immediately addressing the specific other gospel which the Galatian Christians had fallen prey to in the apostle Paul's time in the first century AD (Galatians 1:6-7, Galatians 5:1-12).
While Paul was not a Judaizer in the sense of requiring physical circumcision or any other works of the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law, he was a Judaizer in that he taught that all Christians, whether Jews (Acts 22:3) or Gentiles (Romans 16:4b), have become spiritually circumcised Jews if they have undergone the spiritual circumcision of water-immersion (burial) baptism into Jesus Christ (Romans 2:29, Philippians 3:3, Colossians 2:11-13). Also, Paul did not contradict that Christians' obeying Jesus' New Covenant/New Testament commandments (John 15:10) to obtain ultimate salvation (Hebrews 5:9, Romans 2:6-8) is them obeying the commandments of a Jew (John 4:9,22b). Also, Paul taught that all Gentile Christians are grafted into Israel (Romans 11:17,24, Ephesians 2:12,19, Galatians 3:29).
(See paragraph 2 of the "Tribes" section of Romans 11:17 above)
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(Re: *Islam)
See the "Not Islam" section of Revelation 13:4 below.
Even though Islam in its present form will not be the religion of the future Antichrist during his literal 3.5-year worldwide reign, Islam could be, since the latter half of the seventh century AD, Revelation 17:10's seventh empire. The Antichrist's empire will be a different, still-future, eighth empire (Revelation 17:11). Also, because Islam falsely claims that the anti-Gospel Koran came through the angel Gabriel, it is one fulfillment of Galatians 1:8-9 (cf. 2 Corinthians 11:14).
(See also Revelation 13:1 below)
Islam is an anti-Gospel religion because, even though it affirms that Jesus is the Christ (Koran 4:157, Koran 5:17,75), it denies that Jesus is the human/divine Son of God (Koran 9:30, Koran 4:171, Koran 5:72), and it denies that He suffered and died on the Cross for our sins (Koran 4:157) and rose physically from the dead on the third day. In order to be saved from hell, people have to believe the Gospel that Jesus is both the Christ and the human/divine Son of God (John 3:16,36; 1 John 2:23), and that He suffered and died on the Cross for our sins and rose physically from the dead on the third day (1 Corinthians 15:1-4, Luke 24:39,46-47, Matthew 20:19, Matthew 26:28).
The reason why it is necessary to believe these things to be saved from hell is because it was only as the human/divine Son of God that Jesus Christ's suffering during His Passion could satisfy God the Father's justice (Isaiah 53:11), which requires an infinite amount of human suffering for sin (Matthew 25:46).
(See 1 John 2:2 below)
One way to help Muslims understand how Jesus Christ can be God, from everlasting, is to question them about their understanding of the Muslim belief regarding the Koran. For Islam says that there was no time when the Koran did not exist in a spiritual form in heaven, that it has always coexisted with Allah as his word. So Christians can show Muslims that the Bible says that before Jesus' incarnation, there was no time when He did not exist in a spiritual form in heaven. He has always coexisted with God the Father as God the Word (John 1:1,14).
This is not to suggest that the Muslim claim regarding the Koran is true, or that the book itself is true. Indeed, again, ... (See "because Islam" above)
(See also John 1:1,14 above)
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*Galatians 2:2 / *Gal. 2:2 -
(Re: Means that the apostle Paul got his authority from the apostle Peter?)
No, see the correct, KJV translation of Galatians 2:2, the latter part of which simply refers to which Gentiles the apostle Paul preached to, not to whom he got his authority from (Acts 26:15-23). Paul's preaching only to Gentiles of reputation was in accord with the principle of Matthew 7:6.
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*Galatians 2:6 / *Gal. 2:6 -
Here the original Greek word (prosanatithemi: G4323) translated as "in conference added" can simply mean "imparted" (Strong's Greek Dictionary). That is, no other leaders of the Church in Jerusalem (Galatians 2:1-6) imparted any truth to the apostle Paul which he had not already received directly from Jesus Christ. Compare what Galatians 1:11-12 says.
(See also Acts 15:6 and 1 Corinthians 9:1 above)
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*Galatians 2:7-8 / *Gal. 2:7 -
This does not contradict Matthew 28:19, but means that the apostle Peter was to focus mainly, not exclusively, on preaching to Jews (Acts 2:5,14-36) while the apostle Paul was to focus mainly, not exclusively, on preaching to Gentiles (Acts 26:17-18). For Peter sometimes also preached to Gentiles (Acts 15:7, Acts 10:34-48) and Paul sometimes also preached to Jews (Acts 13:16-41).
(See also the "Paul's gospel" section of 1 Corinthians 15:1-4 above)
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*Galatians 2:10 / *Gal. 2:10 -
The original Greek word (spoudazo: G4704) translated as "forward" can mean "diligent" (cf. 2 Peter 1:10).
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*Galatians 2:11-16 / *Gal. 2:11 -
This means that all Christians, whether Jews or Gentiles, should stop trying to keep the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law (Galatians 2:16,19,21). For Galatians 2:11-21 is about what the apostle Paul, a Jew (Acts 22:3), said to the apostle Peter, also a Jew (Galatians 2:14), while they were up in Antioch living among Gentile Christians. Before certain men came from Jerusalem, where some Church leaders mistakenly thought that Jews still had to keep the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law (Acts 21:17-25), Peter had been rightly living "after the manner of Gentiles, and not as do the Jews" (Galatians 2:14). For he knew the truth that the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law was a "yoke" which "neither our fathers nor we [Jews] were able to bear" (Acts 15:10), and that "through the grace of the Lord Jesus Christ we [Jewish Christians] shall be saved, even as they [Gentile Christians]" (Acts 15:11). So in Galatians 2:16, Paul was simply reminding Peter what he already knew.
Paul then went on to show that even Jewish Christians are "dead" to the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law (Galatians 2:19), and righteousness does not come even to Jews by trying to keep the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law (Galatians 2:21). So Jewish Christians, just as Gentile Christians, must not "frustrate the grace of God" by trying to keep the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law:
[Galatians 2:21]
(See also Galatians 3:2 below)
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*Galatians 2:16 / *Gal. 2:16 -
(Re: 1 Corinthians 13:13)
Galatians 2:16 is not the apostle Paul's definition of faith itself, but his referring to faith in Jesus Christ Himself, while the faith which Paul is referring to in 1 Corinthians 13:13 is that which believes "all things" true (1 Corinthians 13:7, cf. Matthew 4:4; 2 Timothy 3:16-17).
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*Galatians 2:21 / *Gal. 2:21 -
See Romans 3:19 above.
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*Galatians 3:2-25 / *Gal. 3:2 / *Gal. 3:3 -
[Galatians 3:2-3, KJV]
This means that the works of the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law, especially its physical circumcision (Galatians 6:12-13), are works of the flesh as opposed to spiritual works of faith (Philippians 3:2-14; 1 Thessalonians 1:3, Galatians 5:6, Titus 3:8), for the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law is not of faith (Galatians 3:12). Also, compare what Romans 7:5-6 says.
Galatians 3:2-3 means that the works of the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law cannot make Christians perfect. Galatians 3:2-3 is not contradicting that...
(See Romans 2:6 above)
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Galatians 3:2-25 means that all Christians, whether Jews or Gentiles, should stop trying to keep the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law. For Galatians 3:2-25 says that the works of the Old Covenant Mosaic law are works of the flesh instead of God's Holy Spirit (Galatians 3:2-3). And Galatians 3:2-25 shows that all people, whether Jews or Gentiles, who try to do the works of the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law place themselves under its curse (Galatians 3:10). And Galatians 3:2-25 says that the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law was only a temporary schoolmaster which Christians, both Jews and Gentiles (so that Paul, a Jew, can say "we"), are no longer under (Galatians 3:24-25, cf. Romans 7:6).
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(Re: Why did Paul reject *Pharisees/*Pharisaism if he believed in works?)
What the apostle Paul rejected was the mistaken idea that initial salvation requires works of any kind (Romans 4:1-5, Ephesians 2:8-9, Titus 3:5), and the mistaken idea that initial salvation and ultimate salvation require the works of the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law (Galatians 2:16). Paul did not reject the true idea that...
(See Romans 2:6 above)
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*Galatians 3:14 / *Gal. 3:14 -
(Re: Means that we have to tithe?)
No, for Galatians 3:14 refers to the singular blessing of Galatians 3:8b which was given to Abraham in Genesis 22:18. This blessing was given not after Abraham gave a tithe (of spoils of war) only one time to Melchisedec in Genesis 14:20, but later, only after Abraham had been willing to sacrifice his son to God (Genesis 22:10-18).
(See also Genesis 22:2 above, and the "Tithing" section of Ephesians 2:15 below)
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*Galatians 3:16 / *Gal. 3:16 -
(Re: Is Jesus Israel?)
Yes, insofar as Jesus Christ is the promised "seed" of Abraham (Galatians 3:16) and the seed of Abraham is Israel (Isaiah 41:8, Romans 11:1; 2 Chronicles 20:7). And so all those in Jesus are Israel (Ephesians 2:12,19, Romans 11:17,24, Revelation 21:9,12; 1 Peter 2:9-10), just as all those in Jesus are the seed of Abraham (Galatians 3:29).
(See also the "Tribes" section of Romans 11:17 above)
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*Galatians 3:17 / *Gal. 3:17 -
This should not be read as contradicting that Israel had spent 430 years in Egypt before the Exodus (Exodus 12:40-41). Instead, the key word in Galatians 3:17 with regard to chronology is "confirmed", which refers to when God confirmed the Abrahamic covenant of Genesis 12:1-3 with Jacob/Israel (Abraham's grandson) right before he entered Egypt (Genesis 46:2-4).
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*Galatians 3:19-25 / *Gal. 3:19 -
This explains why there was the temporary letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law.
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*Galatians 3:21 / *Gal. 3:21 -
This means that initial justification is not by the works of the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law or the works of any other law. But while initial justification is by faith in Jesus Christ without any works (Romans 4:1-5, Ephesians 2:8-9, Titus 3:5), ultimate justification is by both faith and works of faith (James 2:24, Romans 2:6-8, Matthew 7:21) (not works of the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law).
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*Galatians 3:23-29 / *Gal. 3:23 -
See Romans 3:19 above.
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*Galatians 3:24-25 / *Gal. 3:24 / *Gal. 3:25 -
Christians no longer being under the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law (Galatians 3:24-25, Romans 7:6) means that it is no longer needed in the lives of Christians. Moreover, Christians should not even have any desire to go back under any part of it (Galatians 4:21 to 5:8), for it was merely Jesus Christ's shadow (Colossians 2:16-17, John 1:17).
(See also the "Law" section of Ephesians 2:15 below)
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(Re: Means that we are under the law until we are justified by faith?)
No, for the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law is not abolished for an individual only when he comes into faith in Jesus Christ, but was abolished for everyone at the same time when Jesus died on the Cross (Ephesians 2:15-16, Colossians 2:14-17, Mark 15:37-38), which was also when He established the New Covenant (Hebrews 9:16, Matthew 26:28), and so was when the New Covenant faith came (Galatians 3:25, Romans 3:25-26). The letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law is not of the New Covenant faith (Galatians 3:12). So on the Cross, Jesus had to take away the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law for everyone at the same time so that He could establish the New Covenant for everyone at the same time: "He taketh away the first, that he may establish the second" (Hebrews 10:9b, Hebrews 8:7, Hebrews 7:18-19).
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*Galatians 3:26 / *Gal. 3:26 -
(Re: Means that only Christians are elect?)
No, for elect individuals are elect even before they become Christians (Romans 11:28, Romans 9:11, Ephesians 1:4; 2 Thessalonians 2:13). They become Christians at some point during their lifetime because they are elect (Acts 13:48b).
(See also Romans 9:11 above)
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*Galatians 3:28 / *Gal. 3:28 -
Galatians 3:28 There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: for ye are all one in Christ Jesus.
This cannot mean that there are no Christians who are Jews or Gentiles in any sense, for Christians remain either genetic Jews (Acts 22:3) or genetic Gentiles (Romans 16:4b). Similarly, Galatians 3:28 does not mean that there are no Christians who are males or females, for we are still males or females with regard to our genitals and with regard to other matters (1 Timothy 2:11-12; 1 Corinthians 14:34-37; 1 Corinthians 11:4-16; 1 Peter 3:7a).
So Galatians 3:28 can only mean that there is no distinction between Jewish and Gentile Christians, or between male and female Christians, with regard to them being "one in Christ" (Galatians 3:28b) in the sense of them being one body in Jesus Christ (Ephesians 4:4-6) without distinction with regard to their salvation (Romans 10:12; 1 Corinthians 12:13; 1 Peter 3:7b).
(See also paragraph 3 of the "Tribes" section of Romans 11:17 above)
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*Galatians 3:29 / *Gal. 3:29 -
(*Seed)
All Christians, whether Jews or Gentiles, are spiritually Abraham's seed (Galatians 3:29), and Abraham's seed is Israel (Isaiah 41:8, Romans 11:1; 2 Chronicles 20:7), so the entire Church is Israel (Revelation 21:9,12; 1 Peter 2:9-10). Not just the Jews in the Church (Romans 11:1b), but also the Gentiles in the Church are spiritually Abraham's seed of promise (Romans 9:7-8,24) as Isaac was (Galatians 4:28) and as Jesus Christ is (Galatians 3:16,29). So both Jewish and Gentile Christians are heirs of all of the promises made by God to Israel (Ephesians 3:6, Ephesians 2:12,19, Romans 15:27, Galatians 3:29b, Romans 11:17,24).
(See also the first section, and the "land" section, of Romans 11:17 above)
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(Re: So genetic descent means nothing at all?)
See Romans 11:28 above.
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*Galatians 4:3 / *Gal. 4:3 -
The original Greek word (stoicheion: G4747) translated as "elements" can mean "principles" (Hebrews 5:12).
Here, "under the elements [principles]" is meant to be understood as parallel to "under the law" in Galatians 4:5,21, just as the "bondage" in Galatians 4:3 is bondage to the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law (Galatians 4:24, Galatians 5:1-4).
(See also the "Law" section of Ephesians 2:15 below)
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*Galatians 4:4 / *Gal. 4:4 -
(The fulness of the time)
This does not refer to the future Millennium, or even to 1,000 years, but only to Jesus Christ's first coming in the first century AD.
Also, God's waiting to send Jesus Christ into the world the first time did not cause any problem for Old Testament believers.
(See 1 Peter 4:6 below)
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*Galatians 4:6-7 / *Gal. 4:6 -
(Re: Does being *children of God mean once-saved-always-saved?)
No, for whereas Christians are the children of God (Galatians 4:6-7, Romans 8:16; 1 John 3:1, John 1:12), they can still ultimately lose their salvation (Matthew 8:11-12), such as by refusing to repent from a sin (Hebrews 10:26-29; 1 Corinthians 9:27, Luke 12:45-46). For under the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law a father was commanded to have even his own son stoned to death if his son refused to repent (Deuteronomy 21:18-21). And under the New Covenant, God will ultimately punish unrepentant sinners even more sorely than He did under the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law (Hebrews 10:26-29).
(See also the "NOSAS" section of Hebrews 3:6 below)
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Dec 17, 2018
No, the third heaven is not a future time, but a past, present and future place, just as the first two heavens are past, present and future places.
The original Hebrew word (shamayim: H8064) translated as "heaven" in Genesis 1:20, which refers to the atmosphere, is the same Hebrew word translated as "heaven" in Ecclesiastes 5:2, which refers to the place where God's throne is, the spiritual realm (Revelation 4:2), the third heaven (2 Corinthians 12:2b); just as the same Hebrew word is used to refer to outer space where the stars reside (Genesis 26:4). So the same Hebrew word can refer to each of the three heavens, which all exist at the same time.
The same is true in the Greek. The original Greek word (ouranos: G3772) translated as "air" in Matthew 6:26, which refers to the atmosphere, is the same Greek word translated as "heaven" in Matthew 5:45, which refers to the place where God's throne is, the spiritual realm (Revelation 4:2), the third heaven (2 Corinthians 12:2b); just as the same Greek word is used to refer to outer space where the stars reside (Hebrews 11:12). So the same Greek word can refer to each of the three heavens, which all exist at the same time.
Also, any future age can also contain three heavens at the same time, if the earth and its atmosphere continue to exist along with outer space and the spiritual realm; just as any age before the present one could have contained three heavens at the same time, if the earth and its atmosphere existed along with outer space and the spiritual realm.
The future New Heaven and New Earth (Revelation 21:1) could mean a new surface for the earth and a new atmosphere, or first heaven, while the second heaven, outer space, remains unrenewed, and the third heaven, the spiritual realm, needs no renewal.
The second heaven (outer space, the physical universe) could have been created by God some nine billion years before the first heaven (the earth's atmosphere) was created when God created the planet earth some five billion years ago. And the third heaven (the created spiritual realm) could have existed for untold ages before the creation of our physical universe by God some fourteen billion years ago. So there could have been two higher levels of heaven for billions of years before the lowest level was created by God with the planet earth.
The first heaven, the earth's atmosphere, will be destroyed by God at the Great White Throne Judgment (Revelation 20:11) and replaced when a New Earth, as in a new surface for the earth, is created by God (Revelation 21:1). But the second heaven, outer space, could continue unchanged at the Great White Throne Judgment and then for billions of years afterward until God eventually decides to create a new universe. Even science admits that this universe will eventually die. As it expands, it will eventually get so spread out, and so cold and dark, that nothing will survive. And then even the protons making up all atoms will eventually decay away so that there will be nothing but empty, cold blackness forever. Of course, God will not have to wait that long to roll up this dying (entropic) universe and replace it with a new one (cf. Psalms 102:25-27). He could do that long before it reaches a completely decrepit state in which physical life will no longer be possible.
And God may never have to replace the third heaven, the created spiritual realm. It could remain unchanged through entire series of future physical universes for untold trillions and quadrillions of years, just as it could have existed in the past for untold trillions and quadrillions of years through entire series of past physical universes before the one which we are in now was created by God only some fourteen billion years ago ("only" when compared with eternity past).
(See also Romans 1:20 above)
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*2 Corinthians 12:7-10 / *2 Cor. 12:7 -
The apostle Paul's thorn in the flesh (2 Corinthians 12:7-10) was not a sin, but a physical infirmity, possibly having to do with his eyes. Compare what Galatians 4:13-15 says. In Galatians 4:14 the original Greek word (peirasmos: G3986) translated as "temptation" . . .
(See "does not have to mean" under paragraph 4 of section 2 of 1 Timothy 3:7 below)
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*2 Corinthians 12:20 / *2 Cor. 12:20 -
The original Greek word (phusiosis: G5450) translated as "swellings" can mean either "haughtiness", that is, being "puffed up" oneself (1 Corinthians 4:18-19; 1 Corinthians 5:2; 1 Corinthians 8:1; 1 Corinthians 13:4, Colossians 2:18), and/or it can mean what even in English is called "puffery", in this case in the sense of an exaggerated exalting of one factional leader (in a church) over another (1 Corinthians 4:6b).
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*2 Corinthians 13:1 / *2 Cor. 13:1 -
See Genesis 41:32 above.
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*2 Corinthians 13:5 / *2 Cor. 13:5 -
(Reprobates / G0096)
See 2 Timothy 3:8 below.
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*2 Corinthians 13:10 / *2 Cor. 13:10 -
The original Greek word (apotomos: G0664) translated as "sharpness", like the English word, can mean "severity". Compare the word's use in Titus 1:13.
--
*Galatians addresses the problem of Christians mistakenly trying to keep the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law (Galatians 4:21 to 5:8, Galatians 3:2-25, Galatians 2:11-21).
~
(Re: Was the complaint instead only that they were allowing themselves to be *circumcised?)
No, for physical circumcision was part of the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law (Exodus 12:48). So if Christians still needed to keep the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law, then they would still need to be physically circumcised. But Galatians shows that if Christians get physically circumcised or perform any other part of the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law thinking that they have to because it is part of the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law (Galatians 5:2-4), then they become debtors to keep every part of the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law (Galatians 5:3). They place themselves under its curse (Galatians 3:10). They fall from grace (Galatians 5:4).
(See also the "Circumcision" section of Ephesians 2:15 below)
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*Galatians 1:4 / *Gal. 1:4 -
(Re: This world)
See Romans 12:2 above.
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*Galatians 1:6-9 / *Gal. 1:6 -
Here the false "other gospel" is the idea that any Christians, whether Jews or Gentiles, have to or should even want to keep the abolished letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law (Galatians 4:21 to 5:8, Galatians 3:2-25, Galatians 2:11-21, Ephesians 2:15-16, Colossians 2:14-17, Romans 7:6; 2 Corinthians 3:6-18, Hebrews 7:18-19).
(See the "Law" section of Ephesians 2:15 below)
There is only one true Gospel (Galatians 1:6-9), which covers both initial salvation (Ephesians 2:8-9) and ultimate salvation (Romans 2:6-8), both initial justification/righteousness (Romans 4:1-5) and ultimate justification/righteousness (James 2:24). Galatians 1:6-9 is not contradicting the truth of this Gospel, that...
(See Romans 2:6 above)
~
(Re: *Legalism)
Grace sets Christians free from the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law (Romans 6:14b, John 1:17, Romans 7:6), but not from Jesus Christ's New Covenant law (Galatians 6:2, John 15:10; 1 Corinthians 9:21, Jeremiah 31:31-34, Matthew 26:28), the commandments of which (John 14:15) are those He gave, for example, in the Sermon on the Mount (Matthew 5:19 to 7:29) and in the epistles of the apostle Paul (1 Corinthians 14:37). For while Christians are initially saved by grace by faith only (Ephesians 2:8-9, Titus 3:5, Romans 4:1-5) and do not have to obey the letter of the commandments of the Old Covenant Mosaic law to obtain ultimate salvation (Galatians 2:16, Romans 7:6), they do have to obey Jesus' New Covenant commandments to obtain ultimate salvation (Hebrews 5:9, Matthew 7:21, Romans 2:6-8).
It is by Christians obeying Jesus Christ's New Covenant commandments, whether obeying them currently (1 John 3:24) or during the future Tribulation of Matthew 24 and Revelation chapters 6 to 18 (Revelation 14:12-13, Revelation 12:17b), that Christians can be sure that they are truly loving Jesus (John 14:21-24; 1 John 5:3) and remaining in His love (John 15:10, John 14:21b,23b, Jude 1:21). Christians must fear ultimately losing their salvation, ultimately being cut off the same as non-Christians if they do not continue in His goodness (Romans 11:20-22, Luke 12:45-46).
(See also Hebrews 10:26 and Jude 1:21 below)
~
(Re: Are we now under a stricter law?)
See the "stricter" section of Matthew 5:19 above.
~
(Re: Is the Old Covenant Mosaic law the *best law?)
No, the best law is not the Old Covenant Mosaic law (Hebrews 7:18-19), but Jesus Christ's New Covenant/New Testament law (Hebrews 8:6-13, Galatians 6:2, John 15:10).
~
(Re: Is Jesus' law simply to love?)
Love must have deeds (1 John 3:18, John 14:21-24).
--
*Galatians 1:8-9 / *Gal. 1:8 -
(Re: *Judaizers)
Galatians 1:8-9 by itself applies to more than Judaizers, for by itself it applies to any other gospel. But in its context it is immediately addressing the specific other gospel which the Galatian Christians had fallen prey to in the apostle Paul's time in the first century AD (Galatians 1:6-7, Galatians 5:1-12).
While Paul was not a Judaizer in the sense of requiring physical circumcision or any other works of the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law, he was a Judaizer in that he taught that all Christians, whether Jews (Acts 22:3) or Gentiles (Romans 16:4b), have become spiritually circumcised Jews if they have undergone the spiritual circumcision of water-immersion (burial) baptism into Jesus Christ (Romans 2:29, Philippians 3:3, Colossians 2:11-13). Also, Paul did not contradict that Christians' obeying Jesus' New Covenant/New Testament commandments (John 15:10) to obtain ultimate salvation (Hebrews 5:9, Romans 2:6-8) is them obeying the commandments of a Jew (John 4:9,22b). Also, Paul taught that all Gentile Christians are grafted into Israel (Romans 11:17,24, Ephesians 2:12,19, Galatians 3:29).
(See paragraph 2 of the "Tribes" section of Romans 11:17 above)
~
(Re: *Islam)
See the "Not Islam" section of Revelation 13:4 below.
Even though Islam in its present form will not be the religion of the future Antichrist during his literal 3.5-year worldwide reign, Islam could be, since the latter half of the seventh century AD, Revelation 17:10's seventh empire. The Antichrist's empire will be a different, still-future, eighth empire (Revelation 17:11). Also, because Islam falsely claims that the anti-Gospel Koran came through the angel Gabriel, it is one fulfillment of Galatians 1:8-9 (cf. 2 Corinthians 11:14).
(See also Revelation 13:1 below)
Islam is an anti-Gospel religion because, even though it affirms that Jesus is the Christ (Koran 4:157, Koran 5:17,75), it denies that Jesus is the human/divine Son of God (Koran 9:30, Koran 4:171, Koran 5:72), and it denies that He suffered and died on the Cross for our sins (Koran 4:157) and rose physically from the dead on the third day. In order to be saved from hell, people have to believe the Gospel that Jesus is both the Christ and the human/divine Son of God (John 3:16,36; 1 John 2:23), and that He suffered and died on the Cross for our sins and rose physically from the dead on the third day (1 Corinthians 15:1-4, Luke 24:39,46-47, Matthew 20:19, Matthew 26:28).
The reason why it is necessary to believe these things to be saved from hell is because it was only as the human/divine Son of God that Jesus Christ's suffering during His Passion could satisfy God the Father's justice (Isaiah 53:11), which requires an infinite amount of human suffering for sin (Matthew 25:46).
(See 1 John 2:2 below)
One way to help Muslims understand how Jesus Christ can be God, from everlasting, is to question them about their understanding of the Muslim belief regarding the Koran. For Islam says that there was no time when the Koran did not exist in a spiritual form in heaven, that it has always coexisted with Allah as his word. So Christians can show Muslims that the Bible says that before Jesus' incarnation, there was no time when He did not exist in a spiritual form in heaven. He has always coexisted with God the Father as God the Word (John 1:1,14).
This is not to suggest that the Muslim claim regarding the Koran is true, or that the book itself is true. Indeed, again, ... (See "because Islam" above)
(See also John 1:1,14 above)
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*Galatians 2:2 / *Gal. 2:2 -
(Re: Means that the apostle Paul got his authority from the apostle Peter?)
No, see the correct, KJV translation of Galatians 2:2, the latter part of which simply refers to which Gentiles the apostle Paul preached to, not to whom he got his authority from (Acts 26:15-23). Paul's preaching only to Gentiles of reputation was in accord with the principle of Matthew 7:6.
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*Galatians 2:6 / *Gal. 2:6 -
Here the original Greek word (prosanatithemi: G4323) translated as "in conference added" can simply mean "imparted" (Strong's Greek Dictionary). That is, no other leaders of the Church in Jerusalem (Galatians 2:1-6) imparted any truth to the apostle Paul which he had not already received directly from Jesus Christ. Compare what Galatians 1:11-12 says.
(See also Acts 15:6 and 1 Corinthians 9:1 above)
--
*Galatians 2:7-8 / *Gal. 2:7 -
This does not contradict Matthew 28:19, but means that the apostle Peter was to focus mainly, not exclusively, on preaching to Jews (Acts 2:5,14-36) while the apostle Paul was to focus mainly, not exclusively, on preaching to Gentiles (Acts 26:17-18). For Peter sometimes also preached to Gentiles (Acts 15:7, Acts 10:34-48) and Paul sometimes also preached to Jews (Acts 13:16-41).
(See also the "Paul's gospel" section of 1 Corinthians 15:1-4 above)
--
*Galatians 2:10 / *Gal. 2:10 -
The original Greek word (spoudazo: G4704) translated as "forward" can mean "diligent" (cf. 2 Peter 1:10).
--
*Galatians 2:11-16 / *Gal. 2:11 -
This means that all Christians, whether Jews or Gentiles, should stop trying to keep the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law (Galatians 2:16,19,21). For Galatians 2:11-21 is about what the apostle Paul, a Jew (Acts 22:3), said to the apostle Peter, also a Jew (Galatians 2:14), while they were up in Antioch living among Gentile Christians. Before certain men came from Jerusalem, where some Church leaders mistakenly thought that Jews still had to keep the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law (Acts 21:17-25), Peter had been rightly living "after the manner of Gentiles, and not as do the Jews" (Galatians 2:14). For he knew the truth that the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law was a "yoke" which "neither our fathers nor we [Jews] were able to bear" (Acts 15:10), and that "through the grace of the Lord Jesus Christ we [Jewish Christians] shall be saved, even as they [Gentile Christians]" (Acts 15:11). So in Galatians 2:16, Paul was simply reminding Peter what he already knew.
Paul then went on to show that even Jewish Christians are "dead" to the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law (Galatians 2:19), and righteousness does not come even to Jews by trying to keep the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law (Galatians 2:21). So Jewish Christians, just as Gentile Christians, must not "frustrate the grace of God" by trying to keep the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law:
[Galatians 2:21]
(See also Galatians 3:2 below)
--
*Galatians 2:16 / *Gal. 2:16 -
(Re: 1 Corinthians 13:13)
Galatians 2:16 is not the apostle Paul's definition of faith itself, but his referring to faith in Jesus Christ Himself, while the faith which Paul is referring to in 1 Corinthians 13:13 is that which believes "all things" true (1 Corinthians 13:7, cf. Matthew 4:4; 2 Timothy 3:16-17).
--
*Galatians 2:21 / *Gal. 2:21 -
See Romans 3:19 above.
--
*Galatians 3:2-25 / *Gal. 3:2 / *Gal. 3:3 -
[Galatians 3:2-3, KJV]
This means that the works of the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law, especially its physical circumcision (Galatians 6:12-13), are works of the flesh as opposed to spiritual works of faith (Philippians 3:2-14; 1 Thessalonians 1:3, Galatians 5:6, Titus 3:8), for the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law is not of faith (Galatians 3:12). Also, compare what Romans 7:5-6 says.
Galatians 3:2-3 means that the works of the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law cannot make Christians perfect. Galatians 3:2-3 is not contradicting that...
(See Romans 2:6 above)
~
Galatians 3:2-25 means that all Christians, whether Jews or Gentiles, should stop trying to keep the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law. For Galatians 3:2-25 says that the works of the Old Covenant Mosaic law are works of the flesh instead of God's Holy Spirit (Galatians 3:2-3). And Galatians 3:2-25 shows that all people, whether Jews or Gentiles, who try to do the works of the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law place themselves under its curse (Galatians 3:10). And Galatians 3:2-25 says that the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law was only a temporary schoolmaster which Christians, both Jews and Gentiles (so that Paul, a Jew, can say "we"), are no longer under (Galatians 3:24-25, cf. Romans 7:6).
~
(Re: Why did Paul reject *Pharisees/*Pharisaism if he believed in works?)
What the apostle Paul rejected was the mistaken idea that initial salvation requires works of any kind (Romans 4:1-5, Ephesians 2:8-9, Titus 3:5), and the mistaken idea that initial salvation and ultimate salvation require the works of the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law (Galatians 2:16). Paul did not reject the true idea that...
(See Romans 2:6 above)
--
*Galatians 3:14 / *Gal. 3:14 -
(Re: Means that we have to tithe?)
No, for Galatians 3:14 refers to the singular blessing of Galatians 3:8b which was given to Abraham in Genesis 22:18. This blessing was given not after Abraham gave a tithe (of spoils of war) only one time to Melchisedec in Genesis 14:20, but later, only after Abraham had been willing to sacrifice his son to God (Genesis 22:10-18).
(See also Genesis 22:2 above, and the "Tithing" section of Ephesians 2:15 below)
--
*Galatians 3:16 / *Gal. 3:16 -
(Re: Is Jesus Israel?)
Yes, insofar as Jesus Christ is the promised "seed" of Abraham (Galatians 3:16) and the seed of Abraham is Israel (Isaiah 41:8, Romans 11:1; 2 Chronicles 20:7). And so all those in Jesus are Israel (Ephesians 2:12,19, Romans 11:17,24, Revelation 21:9,12; 1 Peter 2:9-10), just as all those in Jesus are the seed of Abraham (Galatians 3:29).
(See also the "Tribes" section of Romans 11:17 above)
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*Galatians 3:17 / *Gal. 3:17 -
This should not be read as contradicting that Israel had spent 430 years in Egypt before the Exodus (Exodus 12:40-41). Instead, the key word in Galatians 3:17 with regard to chronology is "confirmed", which refers to when God confirmed the Abrahamic covenant of Genesis 12:1-3 with Jacob/Israel (Abraham's grandson) right before he entered Egypt (Genesis 46:2-4).
--
*Galatians 3:19-25 / *Gal. 3:19 -
This explains why there was the temporary letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law.
--
*Galatians 3:21 / *Gal. 3:21 -
This means that initial justification is not by the works of the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law or the works of any other law. But while initial justification is by faith in Jesus Christ without any works (Romans 4:1-5, Ephesians 2:8-9, Titus 3:5), ultimate justification is by both faith and works of faith (James 2:24, Romans 2:6-8, Matthew 7:21) (not works of the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law).
--
*Galatians 3:23-29 / *Gal. 3:23 -
See Romans 3:19 above.
--
*Galatians 3:24-25 / *Gal. 3:24 / *Gal. 3:25 -
Christians no longer being under the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law (Galatians 3:24-25, Romans 7:6) means that it is no longer needed in the lives of Christians. Moreover, Christians should not even have any desire to go back under any part of it (Galatians 4:21 to 5:8), for it was merely Jesus Christ's shadow (Colossians 2:16-17, John 1:17).
(See also the "Law" section of Ephesians 2:15 below)
~
(Re: Means that we are under the law until we are justified by faith?)
No, for the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law is not abolished for an individual only when he comes into faith in Jesus Christ, but was abolished for everyone at the same time when Jesus died on the Cross (Ephesians 2:15-16, Colossians 2:14-17, Mark 15:37-38), which was also when He established the New Covenant (Hebrews 9:16, Matthew 26:28), and so was when the New Covenant faith came (Galatians 3:25, Romans 3:25-26). The letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law is not of the New Covenant faith (Galatians 3:12). So on the Cross, Jesus had to take away the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law for everyone at the same time so that He could establish the New Covenant for everyone at the same time: "He taketh away the first, that he may establish the second" (Hebrews 10:9b, Hebrews 8:7, Hebrews 7:18-19).
--
*Galatians 3:26 / *Gal. 3:26 -
(Re: Means that only Christians are elect?)
No, for elect individuals are elect even before they become Christians (Romans 11:28, Romans 9:11, Ephesians 1:4; 2 Thessalonians 2:13). They become Christians at some point during their lifetime because they are elect (Acts 13:48b).
(See also Romans 9:11 above)
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*Galatians 3:28 / *Gal. 3:28 -
Galatians 3:28 There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: for ye are all one in Christ Jesus.
This cannot mean that there are no Christians who are Jews or Gentiles in any sense, for Christians remain either genetic Jews (Acts 22:3) or genetic Gentiles (Romans 16:4b). Similarly, Galatians 3:28 does not mean that there are no Christians who are males or females, for we are still males or females with regard to our genitals and with regard to other matters (1 Timothy 2:11-12; 1 Corinthians 14:34-37; 1 Corinthians 11:4-16; 1 Peter 3:7a).
So Galatians 3:28 can only mean that there is no distinction between Jewish and Gentile Christians, or between male and female Christians, with regard to them being "one in Christ" (Galatians 3:28b) in the sense of them being one body in Jesus Christ (Ephesians 4:4-6) without distinction with regard to their salvation (Romans 10:12; 1 Corinthians 12:13; 1 Peter 3:7b).
(See also paragraph 3 of the "Tribes" section of Romans 11:17 above)
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*Galatians 3:29 / *Gal. 3:29 -
(*Seed)
All Christians, whether Jews or Gentiles, are spiritually Abraham's seed (Galatians 3:29), and Abraham's seed is Israel (Isaiah 41:8, Romans 11:1; 2 Chronicles 20:7), so the entire Church is Israel (Revelation 21:9,12; 1 Peter 2:9-10). Not just the Jews in the Church (Romans 11:1b), but also the Gentiles in the Church are spiritually Abraham's seed of promise (Romans 9:7-8,24) as Isaac was (Galatians 4:28) and as Jesus Christ is (Galatians 3:16,29). So both Jewish and Gentile Christians are heirs of all of the promises made by God to Israel (Ephesians 3:6, Ephesians 2:12,19, Romans 15:27, Galatians 3:29b, Romans 11:17,24).
(See also the first section, and the "land" section, of Romans 11:17 above)
~
(Re: So genetic descent means nothing at all?)
See Romans 11:28 above.
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*Galatians 4:3 / *Gal. 4:3 -
The original Greek word (stoicheion: G4747) translated as "elements" can mean "principles" (Hebrews 5:12).
Here, "under the elements [principles]" is meant to be understood as parallel to "under the law" in Galatians 4:5,21, just as the "bondage" in Galatians 4:3 is bondage to the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law (Galatians 4:24, Galatians 5:1-4).
(See also the "Law" section of Ephesians 2:15 below)
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*Galatians 4:4 / *Gal. 4:4 -
(The fulness of the time)
This does not refer to the future Millennium, or even to 1,000 years, but only to Jesus Christ's first coming in the first century AD.
Also, God's waiting to send Jesus Christ into the world the first time did not cause any problem for Old Testament believers.
(See 1 Peter 4:6 below)
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*Galatians 4:6-7 / *Gal. 4:6 -
(Re: Does being *children of God mean once-saved-always-saved?)
No, for whereas Christians are the children of God (Galatians 4:6-7, Romans 8:16; 1 John 3:1, John 1:12), they can still ultimately lose their salvation (Matthew 8:11-12), such as by refusing to repent from a sin (Hebrews 10:26-29; 1 Corinthians 9:27, Luke 12:45-46). For under the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law a father was commanded to have even his own son stoned to death if his son refused to repent (Deuteronomy 21:18-21). And under the New Covenant, God will ultimately punish unrepentant sinners even more sorely than He did under the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law (Hebrews 10:26-29).
(See also the "NOSAS" section of Hebrews 3:6 below)
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