Notes: Hebrews 10:37 To 1 Peter 1:18

*Hebrews 10:37-38 / *Heb. 10:37 -

Hebrews 10:37c employs the "will not tarry" idea of Habakkuk 2:3c, just as Hebrews 10:38a refers to Habakkuk 2:4b. Also, there is a coexistent duality in Habakkuk 2:3 between "though it tarry, wait for it" and "it will not tarry", just as there is a coexistent duality between the "nearness" of James 5:8b-9 and the "long patience" which will be required in James 5:7-8a.

Hebrews 10:37 meant a little while to God, not humans (2 Peter 3:8-9, Psalms 90:4), for Jesus Christ's Second Coming has not happened yet.

(See Acts 1:11 above, and the "Soon" section of Revelation 1:1 below)

--

*Hebrews 10:39 / *Heb. 10:39 -

This does not contradict that the people in Hebrews 10:26-29 are Christians. Instead, Hebrews 10:39 gives a separate warning to Hebrews 10:26-29's warning against Christians committing unrepentant sin. For Hebrews 10:39 refers to the need for Christians to continue in the faith (Hebrews 10:38-39) and not to draw back, not to depart/fall away from the Christian faith (1 Timothy 4:1, Luke 8:13; 2 Thessalonians 2:3), to the ultimate loss of their salvation (Hebrews 6:4-8, John 15:6; 2 Timothy 2:12b).

(See Hebrews 6:4 above)

~

(Re: Perdition / G0684 = annihilation?)

See Matthew 7:13 above.

--

*Hebrews 11:5 / *Heb. 11:5 -

The fact that Enoch "was not found" (Hebrews 11:5) and "was not, for God took him" (Genesis 5:24) implies that he was no longer on the earth but had been taken by God alive into heaven, so that "he should not see death" because of how much Enoch pleased God (Hebrews 11:5). God subsequently also took Elijah alive into heaven (2 Kings 2:11). And Jesus Christ ascended alive into heaven (Acts 1:9). And God's future, Two Witnesses will ascend alive into heaven (Revelation 11:12).

(See also John 3:13 above)

--

*Hebrews 11:10 / *Heb. 11:10 -

See Hebrews 11:16 below.

--

*Hebrews 11:13a / *Heb. 11:13a -

Hebrews 11:5 can be an exception to the general statement of Hebrews 11:13a, just as Hebrews 11:35a is an exception to the general statement of Hebrews 9:27. Or, the original Greek word (pas: G3956) translated as "all" in Hebrews 11:13 can be translated as "as many as" (John 17:2). So Hebrews 11:13 can be read as saying that "as many as" those in the preceding list of people who died, died in faith.

--

*Hebrews 11:16 / *Heb. 11:16 -

This refers to the heavenly city of New Jerusalem (Hebrews 12:22-23) which will physically descend from heaven to a New Earth (Revelation 21:1-4), as in a new surface for the earth, after the future Millennium and subsequent events occur on our present earth (Revelation 20:4 to 21:4).

(See also paragraphs 4-5 of Revelation 21:9 below)

--

*Hebrews 12:1 / *Heb. 12:1 -

(Re: Means that the clouds in 1 Thessalonians 4:17 are not literal?)

See the "clouds" section of 1 Thessalonians 4:17 above.

--

*Hebrews 12:2a / *Heb. 12:2a -

This means that it is only because of Jesus Christ that Christians came to believe and have the ability to continue to believe to the end (Colossians 1:23, Hebrews 3:6,14). But Jesus does not take away Christians' free will, so it is possible for them to wrongly employ their free will to depart from the Christian faith, to no longer believe, to commit apostasy (Luke 8:13; 1 Timothy 4:1; 2 Thessalonians 2:3), to the ultimate loss of their salvation (Hebrews 6:4-8, John 15:6; 2 Timothy 2:12b).

(See Hebrews 6:4 above)

--

*Hebrews 12:6-7 / *Heb. 12:6 -

Here the chastening principle applies to all Christians, for:

1. Hebrews 12:6 says: "whom the Lord loveth he chasteneth". And the Lord loves every Christian, for every Christian is elect (Acts 13:48b), and the Lord loves everyone who is elect (Romans 9:11,13).

2. Hebrews 12:6 says God "scourgeth every son whom he receiveth". And every Christian is a son of God (John 1:12).

3. Hebrews 12:7 asks: "what son is he whom the father chastens not?", meaning that every son whom God receives is chastened.

4. Hebrews 12:8 says: "if ye be without chastisement, whereof all are partakers, then are ye bastards, and not sons", meaning that all of the sons whom God receives are partakers of His chastisement.

5. Revelation 3:19 shows that the same chastisement principle as Hebrews 12:6-7 applies to every Christian. For in Revelation 3:19, Jesus says: "As many as I love, I rebuke and chasten". And Jesus loves every Christian (back to point 1).

Because the chastisement principle of Hebrews 12:6-7 and Revelation 3:19 applies to all Christians...

(See Revelation 3:19 below)

~

(Re: Would God keep a Christian from being hit by a bus while He does the chastening, any more than a mortal father would?)

Yes (Revelation 3:19, Revelation 2:21a), just as under the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law a mortal father had to have chastened his sinful son and given him a chance to repent before any capital punishment would be inflicted on a still-unrepentant son (Deuteronomy 21:18-21).

--

*Hebrews 12:8 / *Heb. 12:8 -

This does not mean once-saved-always-saved, for even those sons who receive chastisement (Revelation 3:19) can still wrongly employ their free will to keep on sinning (Revelation 2:21) to the point where their hearts can become hardened against God, their consciences can become seared as with a hot iron, to where they depart from God (Hebrews 3:13-15; 1 Timothy 4:1-2).

(See Galatians 4:6, Hebrews 10:26, and Hebrews 6:4 above)

--

*Hebrews 12:16 / *Heb. 12:16 -

The original Greek word (bebelos: G0952) translated as "profane person" can mean "wicked person".

--

*Hebrews 12:19 / *Heb. 12:19 -

(Re: Is this referring to the rapture trumpet?)

No, for Hebrews 12:19 refers to what Christians are not come to:

[Hebrews 12:18-19]

This refers to the trumpet at Mount Sinai after ancient Israel's Exodus from Egypt (Exodus 19:16 to 20:19).

--

*Hebrews 12:22 / *Heb. 12:22 -

This says "ye are come", not "ye will come", in a future, pre-tribulation rapture.

(See Ephesians 2:6 above and Hebrews 12:26b below. Also, see Revelation 21:9 below and Matthew 24:31 above)

--

*Hebrews 12:26a / *Heb. 12:26a -

This refers to the time at Mount Sinai (Hebrews 12:18-21) when the mountain literally shook (Exodus 19:18).

--

*Hebrews 12:26b / *Heb. 12:26b -

This can refer to an event which is still in our future, whereas Hebrews 12:22, like Ephesians 2:6, can refer to an event which has already been fulfilled in a figurative, spiritual sense.

Hebrews 12:26b-29 can refer to the same thing as 2 Peter 3:10-13. Neither passage teaches or requires a pre-tribulation rapture.

(See 2 Peter 3:10 below)

-

(Re: Haggai 2:6)

See that verse above.

--

*Hebrews 13:5b / *Heb. 13:5b -

(Re: Feeling lonely)

See Matthew 28:20b above.

~

(Re: OSAS?)

Hebrews 13:5b applies to Christians only if they remain faithful to Jesus Christ, for "if we deny him, he also will deny us" (2 Timothy 2:12b).

--

*Hebrews 13:8 / *Heb. 13:8 -

(Re: Means that the letter of the Mosaic law has to still be in effect?)

No, for Hebrews 13:8 means only that Jesus Christ/God Himself is the same yesterday, today, and forever, not that the letter of His law by which He deals with people has to remain the same forever, for it has changed under His New Covenant (Jeremiah 31:31-32, Hebrews 7:12).

(See the "Law" section of Ephesians 2:15 above)

Also, compare what Genesis 22:2 and Genesis 22:12 say, to see how God's command can change.

Also, see what the apostle Paul says in Galatians 3:10-25.

~

(Re: *Emotions)

The fact that God Himself does not change (Hebrews 13:8) does not mean that He does not have emotions, but that, for example, He is a jealous God and will never change from being a jealous God (Exodus 34:14; 1 Corinthians 10:22). Also, God's emotions are not anthropomorphisms, for it is the other way around: humans have emotions because God does, for humans were made in God's image (Genesis 1:27).

Also, emotions may be an integral and even a necessary part of consciousness itself.

(See Ecclesiastes 11:5 above)

--

*Hebrews 13:12 / *Heb. 13:12 -

(Sanctified)

See the "Sanctified" section of Hebrews 10:10 above.

--

*Hebrews 13:16 / *Heb. 13:16 -

The original Greek word (koinonia: G2842) translated as "communicate" can mean either "fellowship" (Acts 2:42) or the giving of alms (Romans 15:26) or the partaking of the bread and wine of Communion (1 Corinthians 10:16).

(See also 1 Timothy 6:18 above)

--

*Hebrews 13:17 / *Heb. 13:17 -

See Romans 13:1-2 above.

--

*Hebrews 13:20-21 / *Heb. 13:20 -

This does not require once-saved-always-saved, for it is simply showing what is possible for Christians (John 15:5, Philippians 2:13), not what is assured (John 15:2a, Titus 3:8, Philippians 2:12b). For Christians can wrongly employ their free will to not do what Jesus Christ wants them to do, even to the ultimate loss of their salvation (Matthew 25:26,30, John 15:2a,6, Romans 2:6-8).

(See also Philippians 2:13 above)

--

*Hebrews 13:24 / *Heb. 13:24 -

See Revelation 7:11 below.

--

*James 1:1 / *Jas. 1:1 -

The book of James is addressing "the twelve tribes" (James 1:1), which is the same as addressing people in the Church (James 5:14), people with faith in Jesus Christ (James 2:1, James 1:3) (that is, Christians), people who have been born again (James 1:18, cf. 1 Peter 1:23), who are waiting for Jesus to return (James 5:7).

(See also the first entry under Hebrews above, and see the "Tribes" section of Romans 11:17 above)

--

*James 1:14-15 / *Jas. 1:14 -

(Re: What about sinning in a dream?)

Christians should ask God for forgiveness if they have committed a sin even in a dream, just as at any other time, for no one but themselves, their own lust, is responsible for them choosing to commit a sin (James 1:14-15) even in a dream.

(See also the "Dreams" sections of Luke 11:1-4 above)

--

*James 1:27 / *Jas. 1:27 -

(Re: Is not *religion bad?)

Religion is not always bad (James 1:27).

~

(Re: Is salvation found not in religion but in a relationship with God?)

Note that those are not mutually exclusive (James 1:27, Jeremiah 22:16).

(See also section 4 of 1 Corinthians 15:1-4 above)

--

*James 2:1 / *Jas. 2:1 -

The original Greek word (prosopolepsia: G4382) translated as "respect of persons" can mean "favoritism" (Strong's Greek Dictionary).

--

*James 2:3 / *Jas. 2:3 -

The original Greek word (lampros: G2986) translated as "gay" clothing can mean "gorgeous" clothing (Luke 23:11). The English word "gay" can also mean "brilliant in color" (Webster's), like how in the Christmas carol when it says "don we now our gay apparel" it can mean putting on bright red and green Christmas clothing. It is unclear how "gay" came to mean homosexual, although one meaning of the English word "gay" is "licentious" (Webster's), which means "disregarding sexual restraints", but in a pejorative way. That is, no one would be proud to say that he is "licentious", for it would be saying that he is sexually immoral. What could have happened is that the word "gay" when used in reference to homosexuality started out as a pejorative euphemism, but homosexuals could have later taken up the term because of its other, positive meanings, such as "merry" and "lively" (Webster's).

(See also Romans 1:26 above)

--

*James 2:8-11 / *Jas. 2:8 -

Christians fulfill the spirit of the entire Old Covenant Mosaic law by loving others (James 2:8, Romans 13:8-10, Matthew 7:12). They are not to keep the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law (Romans 7:6), but keep the New Covenant "law of liberty" (James 2:12-13; 2 Corinthians 3:6-18, Galatians 4:21-31).

(See the "Law" section of Ephesians 2:15 above)

--

*James 2:14 / *Jas. 2:14 -

This does not change the fact that James 2:20-26 applies to those who truly have faith in Jesus Christ and His Gospel. James shows that Christians' ultimate salvation requires works and not faith alone (James 2:24), just as the rest of the New Testament shows the same thing (Romans 2:6-8, Matthew 7:21, Philippians 2:12b; 2 Corinthians 5:9, Hebrews 5:9; 2 Peter 1:10-11, Hebrews 6:10-12, Philippians 3:11-14; 1 John 2:17b).

(See Ephesians 2:8 above)

~

(Re: Is it referring only to justification before men?)

No, for the issue in James 2:14-24 is how Christians are to be saved from hell (James 2:14b), how they are to be justified before God (James 2:23-24), just as the issue in Romans 4:1-5 is how Christians are to be saved from hell, how they are to be justified before God (cf. Romans 5:9, Romans 1:16). That is why both James 2:23-24 and Romans 4:1-5 employ the same Old Testament verse (Genesis 15:6, Romans 4:3, James 2:23). Romans 4:1-5 refers to initial salvation/justification before God, which is based on faith without any works (Ephesians 2:8-9, Titus 3:5), while James 2:23-24 refers to ultimate salvation/justification before God, which is based on both faith and works (Romans 2:6-8, Matthew 7:21, Philippians 2:12b; 2 Corinthians 5:9, Hebrews 5:9; 2 Peter 1:10-11, Hebrews 6:10-12, Philippians 3:11-14; 1 John 2:17b), as in works of faith (1 Thessalonians 1:3, Galatians 5:6b, Titus 3:8) (not works of the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law).

(See also paragraphs 3-4 of James 2:26 below)

~

(Re: Cause/effect)

See paragraph 2 of James 2:26 below.

~

(Re: Can works make people spotless and clean?)

It is by faith in Jesus Christ's sacrificial blood (Romans 3:25-26), and by repentance and confession to God (1 John 1:9), and also by walking in the light (that is, by actually doing the right things) that a Christian is made spotless and clean by the blood of Jesus (1 John 1:7).

(See also paragraphs 3-4 of James 2:26 below)

--

*James 2:21 / *Jas. 2:21 -

This means that Abraham was justified by works by his being willing to offer as a sacrifice to God his son Isaac at God's command (Genesis 22:1-18).

(See also Genesis 22:2 above)

--

*James 2:23 / *Jas. 2:23 -

This cannot be taken out of its context, which is about both faith and works (James 2:21-26).

Regarding the reference to Abraham being called the friend of God, that can refer back to Isaiah 41:8 and 2 Chronicles 20:7.

(See also John 15:14 above)

--

*James 2:25 / *Jas. 2:25 -

This means that Rahab the harlot was justified by works when she received and hid two messengers (that is, two Israelite spies) sent by God Himself. And she then wisely sent them out for their own protection in the opposite direction from what their pursuers expected (Joshua 2).

--

*James 2:26 / *Jas. 2:26 -

(Re: Is salvation *instant?) / (A *breathing analogy)

Initial salvation, being born again (John 3:3,7; 1 Peter 1:23-25; 1 Peter 2:2), is instant in the sense of it being a one-time event, just as the birth of an infant is instant in the sense of it being a one-time event.

Also, God grants initial salvation by faith without works (Ephesians 2:8-9), just as infants are born without their works. But just as an infant after he is born needs to begin to breathe and then to continue to breathe if he is to remain alive, so a new Christian after he is born again needs to begin to perform works of faith (1 Thessalonians 1:3, Galatians 5:6b) (not works of the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law), and to continue to perform them (Titus 3:8) if his faith is to remain alive (James 2:26).

For faith is like a body and works of faith are like the breathing (spirit) of that body (James 2:26). Faith without works of faith will die, just as a body without breathing will die (James 2:26). That is why our ultimate salvation will depend on both our faith and our continued works of faith (Romans 2:6-8, James 2:24, Matthew 7:21). If a Christian refuses to continue to perform works of faith, without repentance, he will ultimately lose his salvation (Matthew 25:26,30, John 15:2a), just as if someone stops himself from breathing by hanging himself, he will die.

The breathing analogy (James 2:26) does not include the automatic aspect of breathing, for Christians must be careful to maintain good works (Titus 3:8). The analogies in the Bible do not include every aspect of the analogous thing. For example, Christians, born-again people, being like newborn babies (1 Peter 2:2) does not mean that Christians have no ability to talk, walk or control their bowels.

--

*James 3:1 / *Jas. 3:1 -

(Masters / G1320)

See John 3:10 above.

~

(Greater condemnation)

The original Greek word (krima: G2917) translated as "condemnation" can mean "judgment" (1 Peter 4:17). It can be "greater" for teachers of the Church in the sense of both Luke 12:48b and Matthew 12:36.

--

*James 3:13-18 / *Jas. 3:13 -

Compare what 2 Timothy 2:24-26 says.

--

*James 4:4 / *Jas. 4:4 -

The original Greek words (philia: G5373; and philos: G5384) translated as "friendship" and "friend" can mean "fondness" and "fond", so that James 4:4 would be the same idea as 1 John 2:15-17.

--

*James 4:5 / *Jas. 4:5 -

The original Greek word (pthonos: G5355) translated as "envy" can mean "jealousy" (Strong's Greek Dictionary).

And the Greek word (epipotheo: G1971) translated as "lusteth" can mean "dotes upon", whether in a good way or a bad way.

But either way, it can tie in with James 4:4.

For the good way would be God's Spirit doting upon us to the point of jealousy on His part when we turn to other things (1 Corinthians 10:22; Exodus 20:5, Exodus 34:14).

And the bad way would be our spirit doting upon other things causing jealousy on God's part.

--

*James 4:7 / *Jas. 4:7 -

It is because Christians retain their free will that they can choose daily to submit themselves to God (James 4:7, Luke 9:23, Romans 12:1; 2 Corinthians 5:15). But it is also because they retain their free will that there is no assurance that they will choose to submit themselves to God to the end, instead of choosing at some point to begin to act in such a way that they will ultimately lose their salvation (Hebrews 10:26-29, Hebrews 6:4-8, Matthew 25:26,30).

~

(Re: Why is the Church told to "resist the devil and he will flee from you", but he does not flee from the Tribulation saints?)

Note that he also did not flee from the righteous, first century AD church of Smyrna, instead of being allowed to kill its members (Revelation 2:10-11). For James 4:7 refers to temptation to sin, like in Matthew 4:1-11, not to physical persecution (2 Timothy 3:12).

(See also the "Tribulation saints?" section of Matthew 24(space) above)

--

*James 5:4 / *Jas. 5:4 -

(The Lord of Sabaoth)

See Romans 9:29 above.

--

*James 5:8-9 / *Jas. 5:8 -

This holy scripture must be understood from the viewpoint of God, not humans (2 Peter 3:8-9, Psalms 90:4; 2 Peter 1:20-21), for Jesus Christ's Second Coming has not happened yet.

(See Acts 1:11 above, and the "Soon" section of Revelation 1:1 below)

~

(Re: Is that the way that the original receivers of James' letter would have understood it?)

Note that is irrelevant because of 2 Peter 1:20-21 and 2 Peter 3:8-9.

~

(Re: You seem to be saying that only we today can understand it that way, since you are relying on extra-Biblical evidence for your interpretation)

Note that what is being relied on is the Biblical precept of 2 Peter 3:8-9.

~

(Re: How would James' original audience be able to make the distinction you do between James 5:8-9, which you say is near only from God's point of view; and Matthew 24:33, which is near from a human point of view?)

The latter verse contains a still-unfulfilled condition which the former verses do not.

(See also sections 2,6,7 of 2 Thessalonians 2:1-8 above)

--

*James 5:9 / *Jas. 5:9 -

The original Greek word (stenazo: G4727) translated as "grudge" can mean "murmur".

(See also Matthew 6:15 above)

--

*James 5:19-20 / *Jas. 5:19 -

This is addressing "brethren" Christians, telling them that if any of them wanders away from the truth and falls back into a course of sinful living, and then a fellow Christian succeeds in exhorting that sinful Christian to repent from his sin (Hebrews 3:13), the second Christian will save the first from ultimately losing his salvation due to unrepentant sin (Hebrews 10:26-29, Luke 12:45-46; 1 Corinthians 9:27).

To "save a soul from death" (James 5:19-20) means to save a soul from eternal suffering in hell (Matthew 10:28, Hebrews 10:39).

(See Matthew 25:41 and Hebrews 10:26 above. Also, see 1 John 5:16 below)

--

*1 Peter 1:1 / *1 Pet. 1:1 -

This refers to provinces of the Roman empire located in what is today Turkey.

--

*1 Peter 1:4 / *1 Pet. 1:4 -

Regarding "an inheritance incorruptible" (1 Peter 1:4), Christians having a future inheritance of something incorruptible does not require that they will end up actually receiving it. For it is possible for Christians to forfeit their future inheritance by wrongly employing their free will (Hebrews 12:16-17, Hebrews 10:26-29, Hebrews 6:4-8).

Regarding the inheritance being "reserved" in heaven (1 Peter 1:4), that does not mean that Christians cannot lose it, because people can lose reservations. For example, through laziness they can fail to show up at the right time for a restaurant reservation and so lose it. In the same way, Christians can ultimately lose their salvation if they wrongly employ their free will to become utterly lazy without repentance (Matthew 25:26,30, John 15:2a, Romans 2:6-8).

(See also section 2 of Ephesians 1:13 above, and see Romans 6:23 above)

--

*1 Peter 1:5 / *1 Pet. 1:5 -

This means that Christians are guarded ("kept") by the power of God "through" their faith in Jesus Christ. But the Bible gives no assurance that Christians will choose to continue in the faith to the end, and not at some point wrongly employ their free will to depart from the faith, to commit apostasy (Luke 8:13; 1 Timothy 4:1; 2 Thessalonians 2:3), to the ultimate loss of their salvation (Hebrews 6:4-8, John 15:6; 2 Timothy 2:12b).

Also, 1 Peter 1:5 refers to the "salvation ready to be revealed in the last time", which is ultimate salvation as opposed to initial (current) salvation. Christians will obtain ultimate salvation only "if" they continue in the faith to the end (Hebrews 3:6,12,14, Colossians 1:23).

(See Hebrews 6:4 above, and the "Initial salvation" section of Ephesians 2:8 above)

~

(Re: In 1 Peter 1:5, is not our faith being kept?)

No, for 1 Peter 1:5's original Greek refers not to a singular, feminine "faith" being kept, but a plural, masculine "who" being kept, meaning Christians, who are being guarded ("kept") by the power of God "through" their faith.

(See also Hebrews 12:2a above)

~

(The last time)

In 1 Peter 1:5 the original Greek word (kairos: G2540) translated as "time" can refer to quite a long period. For the same Greek word is used in 2 Corinthians 6:2b to refer to the "time" of people becoming Christians, which has been going on for thousands of years.

(See also Hebrews 1:2 above)

--

*1 Peter 1:13 / *1 Pet. 1:13 -

The original Greek word (osphus: G3751) translated as "loins" can mean "seat of strength".

--

*1 Peter 1:17 / *1 Pet. 1:17 -

(Without respect of persons)

See Acts 10:34 above.

--

*1 Peter 1:18-19 / *1 Pet. 1:18 -

(Re: OSAS?)

See Hebrews 10:26 above.

~

In 1 Peter 1:18 the original Greek word (mataios: G3152) translated as "vain" does not mean "proud", but "empty".

Of course, these can sometimes be the same thing, if people who are empty try to cover-over their emptiness with a veneer of pride. But just as the veneers of capped teeth -- especially "crappy caps" -- will always protrude awkwardly out from the lips of someone who is talking, so the boasts of empty people will always be seen as awkward.

-

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