So look at 295 and tell me why you were saying it is incorrect?
First, we have to look at the prophecy itself. What is one thing
rarely spoken about it? (in bold)
Next, notice the bold italics.
Jeremiah 31:31-34 (KJV)
31 Behold, the days come, saith the Lord, that I will make a new covenant
with the house of Israel, and with the house of Judah:
32 Not according to the covenant that I made with their fathers in the day that I took them by the hand to bring them out of the land of Egypt; which my covenant they brake, although I was an husband unto them, saith the Lord:
33 But
this shall be the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel;
After those days, saith the Lord, I will put my law in their inward parts, and write it in their hearts; and will be their God, and they shall be my people.
34 And they shall teach no more every man his neighbour, and every man his brother, saying, Know the Lord: for they shall all know me, from the least of them unto the greatest of them, saith the Lord:
for I will forgive their iniquity, and I will remember their sin no more.
This covenant, like most of the others is ONLY with Judah and Israel, the 12 tribes.
Gentiles are only added on by faith in Jesus, and adoption into Israel, the nation.
As you said, Judah rejected the covenant and Israel didn't accept either. Not yet.
So, no covenant.
Jesus is the fulfillment, but 'after those days' is always the end times in scripture.
Even in Hebrews 8:13 it says this is future, not past or present.
13 In speaking of a new covenant, He has made the first one obsolete; and
what is obsolete and aging will soon disappear.…
As for obsolete, my computer is obsolete, but it still runs.
The following article may be clearer, and explains in detail.
http://www.lightofmashiach.org/newcovenant.html