shernren
you are not reading this.
- Feb 17, 2005
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Regarding Luke 1:70 :
1. Technically, time began 6 days before the creation of Adam. Also, Adam would not have seen fit to prophesy of the coming of salvation unless he had sinned and thus needed to be saved. Therefore to take this verse to literally mean that since the very beginning of time there have been prophecies about the Saviour, is to take the Fall as the beginning of time. I'm not saying that is impossible, but it would certainly be strange and would require far more scriptural proof to be convincing. This is similar to the argument against misusing "in the beginning God created them male and female" as a quote explicitly supporting YECism.
2. The part translated "since time began" is literally apo aionos (can't copy greek from e-sword?). A more responsible transliteration would be "from the eons past"; apo is not really used in the sense of "from the beginning" in other places in the NT (eg. Matt 1:17, 21, 24 - the "from"s there is that word), and therefore the sense of "beginning" must be coming from the word aion. It doesn't carry so much the sense of "beginning" as in the sense of "since a long time ago". So in that sense, prophets have indeed been prophesying for a long time already - whether or not they have been prophesying since the start isn't as material.
3. It's not just me. Barnes' Commentary:
Since the world began - This is not to be taken literally, for there were no prophets “immediately after” the creation. It is merely a general expression, designed to denote that all the prophets had predicted the coming of the Messiah. Compare the Luk_24:27 note; Rev_19:10 note.
Gill's:
which have been since world began; or from the beginning of the world; ever since the first hint of the Messiah, as the seed of the woman, that should bruise the serpent's head, was given, he was more or less spoken of.
1. Technically, time began 6 days before the creation of Adam. Also, Adam would not have seen fit to prophesy of the coming of salvation unless he had sinned and thus needed to be saved. Therefore to take this verse to literally mean that since the very beginning of time there have been prophecies about the Saviour, is to take the Fall as the beginning of time. I'm not saying that is impossible, but it would certainly be strange and would require far more scriptural proof to be convincing. This is similar to the argument against misusing "in the beginning God created them male and female" as a quote explicitly supporting YECism.
2. The part translated "since time began" is literally apo aionos (can't copy greek from e-sword?). A more responsible transliteration would be "from the eons past"; apo is not really used in the sense of "from the beginning" in other places in the NT (eg. Matt 1:17, 21, 24 - the "from"s there is that word), and therefore the sense of "beginning" must be coming from the word aion. It doesn't carry so much the sense of "beginning" as in the sense of "since a long time ago". So in that sense, prophets have indeed been prophesying for a long time already - whether or not they have been prophesying since the start isn't as material.
3. It's not just me. Barnes' Commentary:
Since the world began - This is not to be taken literally, for there were no prophets “immediately after” the creation. It is merely a general expression, designed to denote that all the prophets had predicted the coming of the Messiah. Compare the Luk_24:27 note; Rev_19:10 note.
Gill's:
which have been since world began; or from the beginning of the world; ever since the first hint of the Messiah, as the seed of the woman, that should bruise the serpent's head, was given, he was more or less spoken of.
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