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You will surely die?

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Smithaw1

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Well for the last 17 years, since I was 5 I have been a Southern Baptist, never deviating from free will, and eternal torment for the lost. In fact, I'm still in this camp just not as sure. Recently, I've come across some things, including my own reading of the Bible, that are making me rethink everything. First and foremost i would like to say that the One truth that I am sure of is that Jesus died for me and that there can be no hope for the world without the sacrifice of God's only son, Jesus Christ. The things that I'm questioning are who is saved? and is it in our control? Ephesians 2:8 says by grace through faith, but that this faith is a gift of God. Also Jesus talks several times in the Gospel about only the ones God chooses believes. This seems to fly directly in the face of free will. However, a doctrine I can't really accept is that God's plan is to save only a small minority of humanity --at most 5 or 10 %, but when we look at the # that actually follow Christ, more like .5% and consign the rest of creation to eternal torment without giving them a choice in the matter.

This leads me to universalism, which I had previously thought was held only by people who weren't Christians and didn't read the Bible--or at least took a few verses out of context. But how can you take 1 Timothy 2:4 out of context which says in the Greek that God intends (not desires as modern translations like to say) all men to be save. Or the verse in Romans 11 that says God gave all men over to sin so that he could have mercy on them all. Also there are key passages in 1 Corinthians 15, Romans 8, and Colossians 1 that seem to teach the reconcilliation of the whole world through the work of Jesus Christ on the cross. Before I thought all who believ must be implied in these passages becaus they just don't square with my view of hell as a place of eternal separation from God and torment! But universalist explain these verses. They say that the word "aionion" in the Greek is mistranslated in the Bible. Since aion means eon or age (like in the Great Commission) then aionion couldn's possibly have a meaning besides "of the age" or as Young's 1607 translation renders it, "age enduring." In fact, sometimes, when the King James scholars couldn't translate it any other way they had to render it something differenlt besides aionion. (For instance they translated aion and aionion like 7 different ways in the first chapter of Ephesians) But usually, however, they translated aionion to mean forever, everlasting, or eternal. Interestingly, the phrase "aionion" life doesn't occur in Revelation--after the church age, instead it says forever and ever which in the Greek means "to the aions of the aions" or "ages of the ages." The universaists argue that since the wages of sin is death, the same word for death that is used when a cow dies, then saying that God gives eternal torment would be to say God is unjust. Why, they ask,didn't God tell Adam what the "REAL" wages of sin were instead of just saying that he would surely die. What they believe is that sometime in the future ages that God, through Christ's sacrifice, will eventually reconcile ALL things to himself. This, of course, is what Paul SEEMS to be saying in certain passages.

An interesting point they both make is that both Paul, in Romans 9(somewhere in the opening verses) and Moses (Exodus 32:32) both say they wish they could be cursed or cut off for Israel's sake. How could they have said this if it meant an eternity in fire? Can anyone really have this much love? Another point they make is how could the "mere" death of Jesus pay the price for mankind's sin if the real wages of sin were eternal torment. (I squirm while writing that sentence, knowing about "The Passion of Jesus Chirst" the love Jesus has for me.) Also, Universalists say even if it is only God's desire --and not something he controls-- for all to be saved then this will mean that God, in the future will be not quite satisfied, just a little bit frustrated. (Isaiah after all does say that all that God desires, he does.) Finally they make the point that the method for salvation in Romans 10 is to confess with your mouth Jesus is Lord and believe in your heart God raised him from the dead. In Philippians, Paul says that God God has exalted his Son so that at the name of Jesus every knee may bow (will be able to bow is how the Greek says is) and every tongue will be able to confess that Jesus Christ is Lord. Now I've always thought that at this point it would be too late. After all, whats the MERIT in saying Jesus is lord after we see him. But then I catch myself, there is never any MERIT to grace, "while we were yet sinners Christ died for us" it is unmerited favor. Maybe when the are seeing God face to face they won't really believe in their hearts God raised him from the dead, but I highly doubt it!

As you all can see, the Universalist arguement is pretty convincing and so I find myself on the fence. I'm waiting for a champion of orthodoxy to stand up and refute this nonsense, to show me how aionion can mean eternal, and why sinners really do deserve everlasting punishment in a place like where the rich man, in the rich man and lazarus was. For myself, I have never questioned the idea that because of my sins I deserve to die, but it does not com enatural to me to say that because of my sin I deserve the same fate of the rich man ETERNALLY. One last thing the Universalists say is that God is a purifying fire and the fires of hell are all about getting people--the unsaved-- ready for God's kingdom.
 

J.A.I

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While it is true that our Lord God desires for all to be saved, we must realize not all will make that decision.. Some just won't believe.

You cannot quote 1 Timothy 2:4 without going on to verse 5. To just state verse 4 is majorly taking it out of context.

1 Timothy 2:4-5 CEV
(4) God wants everyone to be saved and to know the whole truth, which is,
(5) There is only one God, and Christ Jesus is the only one who can bring us to God. Jesus was truly human, and he gave himself to rescue all of us.

And also....

2 Peter 3:9 BBE
(9) The Lord is not slow in keeping his word, as he seems to some, but he is waiting in mercy for you, not desiring the destruction of any, but that all may be turned from their evil ways.

And how can you discount this:

John 14:6 GW
(6) Jesus answered him, "I am the way, the truth, and the life. No one goes to the Father except through me.

But let's go to the top, shall we ?

--------

First and foremost i would like to say that the One truth that I am sure of is that Jesus died for me and that there can be no hope for the world without the sacrifice of God's only son, Jesus Christ.

Good stuff :)

The things that I'm questioning are who is saved? and is it in our control? Ephesians 2:8 says by grace through faith, but that this faith is a gift of God. Also Jesus talks several times in the Gospel about only the ones God chooses believes. This seems to fly directly in the face of free will. However, a doctrine I can't really accept is that God's plan is to save only a small minority of humanity --at most 5 or 10 %, but when we look at the # that actually follow Christ, more like .5% and consign the rest of creation to eternal torment without giving them a choice in the matter

Yes we do have free will. God is a gentleman. He won't force anyone to choose Him. He will drop breadcrumbs along the way, but it is up to us whether we want to follow that path or not. EVERYONE has a choice.

This leads me to universalism, which I had previously thought was held only by people who weren't Christians and didn't read the Bible--or at least took a few verses out of context. But how can you take 1 Timothy 2:4 out of context which says in the Greek that God intends (not desires as modern translations like to say) all men to be save.

From Albert Barnes' Notes on the Bible:
1Ti 2:4 -
Who will have all men to be saved - That is, it is in accordance with his nature, his feelings, his desires. The word “will” cannot be taken here in the absolute sense, denoting a decree like that by which he willed the creation of the world, for then it would certainly be done. But the word is often used to denote a desire, wish, or what is in accordance with the nature of anyone. Thus it may be said of God that he “wills” that his creatures may be happy - because it is in accordance with his nature, and because he has made abundant provision for their happiness - though it is not true that he wills it in the sense that he exerts his absolute power to make them happy. God wills that sickness should be relieved, and sorrow mitigated, and that the oppressed should go free, because it is agreeable to his nature; though it is not true that he wills it in the sense that he exerts his absolute power to produce it. A parent wills the welfare of his child. It is in accordance with his nature, his feelings, his desires; and he makes every needful arrangement for it. If the child is not virtuous and happy, it is his own fault. So God wills that all people should be saved. It would be in accordance with his benevolent nature. He has made ample provision for it. He uses all proper means to secure their salvation. He uses no positive means to prevent it, and if they are not saved it will be their own fault. For places in the New Testament where the word here translated “will” (θέλω thelō ), means to desire or wish, see Luk_8:20; Luk_23:8; Joh_16:19; Gal_4:20; Mar_7:24; 1Co_7:7; 1Co_11:3; 1Co_14:5; Mat_15:28. This passage cannot mean, as many have supposed, that God wills that all kinds of people should be saved, or that some sinners of every rank and class may be saved, because:
(1) the natural and obvious interpretation of the language is opposed to such a sense. The language expresses the desire that “all men” should be saved, and we should not depart from the obvious sense of a passage unless necessity requires it.
(2) prayer and thanksgiving 1Ti_2:1 are directed to be offered, not for some of all ranks and conditions, but for all mankind. No exception is made, and no direction is given that we should exclude any of the race from the expressions of our sympathy, and from an interest in our supplications. The reason given here for that prayer is, that God desires that all people should be saved. But how could this be a reason for praying for all, if it means that God desired only the salvation of some of all ranks?
(3) in 1Ti_2:5-6 the apostle gives reasons showing that God wished the salvation of all people, and those reasons are such as to prove that the language here is to be taken in the most unlimited sense. Those reasons are:
(a) that there is one God over all, and one Mediator between God and people - showing that God is the Father of all, and has the same interest in all; and,
(b) that Christ gave himself a ransom for all - showing that God desired their salvation.
This verse proves:
(1) that salvation is provided for all - for if God wished all people to be saved, he would undoubtedly make provision for their salvation; and if he had not made such provision, it could not be said that he desired their salvation, since no one can doubt that he has power to provide for the salvation of all;
(2) that salvation should be offered to all people - for if God desires it, it is right for his ministers to announce that desire, and if he desires it, it is not proper for them to announce anything contrary to this;
(3) that people are to blame if they are not saved.
If God did not wish their salvation, and if he had made no provision for it, they could not be to blame if they rejected the gospel. If God wishes it, and has made provision for it, and they are not saved, the sin must be their own - and it is a great sin, for there is no greater crime which a man can commit than to destroy his own soul, and to make himself the eternal enemy of his Maker.


Also there are key passages in 1 Corinthians 15, Romans 8, and Colossians 1 that seem to teach the reconcilliation of the whole world through the work of Jesus Christ on the cross. Before I thought all who believ must be implied in these passages becaus they just don't square with my view of hell as a place of eternal separation from God and torment!

What are the verses exactly ?

Before I thought all who believ must be implied in these passages becaus they just don't square with my view of hell as a place of eternal separation from God and torment!

Not being rude, but who cares what we think ? The Bible is the authority..
John 3:30 MKJV
(30) He must increase, but I must decrease.


Therefore when it comes to Christ, we have to put ourselves aside.
 
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J.A.I

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But universalist explain these verses.

Be weary of anything that is not sound doctrine according to the Word in full context. They are really good at dressing things up.

They say that the word "aionion" in the Greek is mistranslated in the Bible. Since aion means eon or age (like in the Great Commission) then aionion couldn's possibly have a meaning besides "of the age" or as Young's 1607 translation renders it, "age enduring." In fact, sometimes, when the King James scholars couldn't translate it any other way they had to render it something differenlt besides aionion. (For instance they translated aion and aionion like 7 different ways in the first chapter of Ephesians) But usually, however, they translated aionion to mean forever, everlasting, or eternal.

They say ? Don't go by hearsay. If there is no hard evidence, I'd leave it alone.

The universaists argue that since the wages of sin is death, the same word for death that is used when a cow dies, then saying that God gives eternal torment would be to say God is unjust. Why, they ask,didn't God tell Adam what the "REAL" wages of sin were instead of just saying that he would surely die. What they believe is that sometime in the future ages that God, through Christ's sacrifice, will eventually reconcile ALL things to himself. This, of course, is what Paul SEEMS to be saying in certain passages.

Where does Paul say this ?

An interesting point they both make is that both Paul, in Romans 9(somewhere in the opening verses) and Moses (Exodus 32:32) both say they wish they could be cursed or cut off for Israel's sake. How could they have said this if it meant an eternity in fire?

Haven't you read in the Bible about laying down your life for friends ? ;)

Another point they make is how could the "mere" death of Jesus pay the price for mankind's sin if the real wages of sin were eternal torment.

There was NOTHING mere about the crucifixion of Jesus Christ!!!!!!!

Also, Universalists say even if it is only God's desire --and not something he controls-- for all to be saved then this will mean that God, in the future will be not quite satisfied, just a little bit frustrated. (Isaiah after all does say that all that God desires, he does.)

Once again, God will not force ANYONE to choose Jesus.

Finally they make the point that the method for salvation in Romans 10 is to confess with your mouth Jesus is Lord and believe in your heart God raised him from the dead. In Philippians, Paul says that God God has exalted his Son so that at the name of Jesus every knee may bow (will be able to bow is how the Greek says is) and every tongue will be able to confess that Jesus Christ is Lord.

Because at this point, they will have to pay reverence to whom He is. And.. Romans 10:9 says to believe in your heart, correct..... but in the other verse, Romans 14:11, it only says every knee will bow before Him. That doesn't say they will believe on Jesus it in their hearts. Even demons reverence God.

As you all can see, the Universalist arguement is pretty convincing and so I find myself on the fence. I'm waiting for a champion of orthodoxy to stand up and refute this nonsense, to show me how aionion can mean eternal, and why sinners really do deserve everlasting punishment in a place like where the rich man, in the rich man and lazarus was. For myself, I have never questioned the idea that because of my sins I deserve to die, but it does not com enatural to me to say that because of my sin I deserve the same fate of the rich man ETERNALLY. One last thing the Universalists say is that God is a purifying fire and the fires of hell are all about getting people--the unsaved-- ready for God's kingdom.

Have the Universalists traced that back to the Word of God ?
 
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J.A.I

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J.A.I

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b-re-n

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Smithaw1 said:
Also Jesus talks several times in the Gospel about only the ones God chooses believes. This seems to fly directly in the face of free will.[/QUOTE]

Ephesians 1:5 says that "He chose us in Him before the foundation of the world". This idea is further explained in 1 Peter 1:1-2 which says Peter, an apostle of Jesus Christ, to those who reside as aliens, scattered throughout Pontus, Galatia, Cappadocia, Asia, and Bithynia, who are chosen according to the foreknowledge of God the Father."

God does not arbitrarily choose certain people and not others. He chooses on the basis of His foreknowledge. Foreknowledge simply means that He knew something before it happened. What did God foreknow? He looked through the corridors of time and foresaw those who would respond positively when presented with the claims of Christ. Those whom He foresaw reacting positively to those claims, He chose. This satisfies God's choice and man's free will.

Understanding this explains the prophecies about the "son of perdition," i.e. Judas. God did not predestine Judas to betray Christ. He simply foreknew that Judas would do this. God then told His prophets to predict it.

Another idea that goes along with this is that God will be to you what you are to Him. For example, we have the famous scripture, "Draw near to God, and He will draw near to you." So then, God would have hardened Pharaoh's heart, because Pharaoh had hardened his heart toward God. This means that God did not take away Pharaoh's free will by arbitrarily hardening his heart.

Hope this helps.
 
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hraedisc

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Smithaw1 said:
...Recently, I've come across some things, including my own reading of the Bible, that are making me rethink everything...
Don't make a final decision until you have read these:



"Immortality: Conditional or Innate." Gives 265 verses from 158 chapters from 35 books of the Bible. These verses indicate that immortality is indeed conditional.

"What Is the Soul and Spirit?" Gives 157 verses from the Bible which use the Hebrew and Greek words for "soul" and "spirit" in ways that do not harmonize with the common concept of death.
 
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LivingWitness

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<>< said:
Don't make a final decision until you have read these:



"Immortality: Conditional or Innate." Gives 265 verses from 158 chapters from 35 books of the Bible. These verses indicate that immortality is indeed conditional.

"What Is the Soul and Spirit?" Gives 157 verses from the Bible which use the Hebrew and Greek words for "soul" and "spirit" in ways that do not harmonize with the common concept of death.
I found the information on these sites to be reaching, unconclusive and drew too many assumptions based on personal interpretation that was slanted towards conclusions based on prejudice of intended author's desire to conceptualize the Word in his own paradigm. In laymen term's too much leaning to ones own understanding.

Raygn
 
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LivingWitness

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J.A.I said:
A look at the word "aionion":
http://www.carm.org/uni/aionion.htm

What do Greek dictionaries say about anionion?:
http://www.carm.org/uni/greekdict.htm

The danger of universalism:
http://www.carm.org/uni/dangerunie.htm

Can a Christian be a universalist?:
http://www.carm.org/uni/christianbeuni.htm

Christian Universalism:
http://www.carm.org/uni/christianunie.htm
Informative sites with clear definitions and not preconcieved ideas but definitive assertions based upon facts , though I did not agree with everything, these sites weren't trying to get me to believe something out of context of the Word or try to get me to place sceptism because of the definitions. Unlike the sites that I wuoted on my previous post.

Raygn

Thanks Jai Have some rep on me.
 
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john14_20

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b-re-n said:
Ephesians 1:5 says that "He chose us in Him before the foundation of the world". This idea is further explained in 1 Peter 1:1-2 which says Peter, an apostle of Jesus Christ, to those who reside as aliens, scattered throughout Pontus, Galatia, Cappadocia, Asia, and Bithynia, who are chosen according to the foreknowledge of God the Father."

God does not arbitrarily choose certain people and not others. He chooses on the basis of His foreknowledge. Foreknowledge simply means that He knew something before it happened. What did God foreknow? He looked through the corridors of time and foresaw those who would respond positively when presented with the claims of Christ. Those whom He foresaw reacting positively to those claims, He chose. This satisfies God's choice and man's free will.
Hi all.

This would work if foreknowlege actually meant 'to know before hand', but it does not.

In fact even if it did, it would be a little silly!

God predestines you to believe in Jesus, because He knows you will believe in Jesus even if He doesn't predestine you. So why bother?

No, foreknowledge comes from the Greek proginosko and it carries the meaning of 'fore-ordained'. God knows in advance what will happen because He has caused it to happen.

Now, while I am not a Calvinist, that really shoots the Arminian version of predestination in the foot.

An understanding of predestination which is neither Arminian OR Calvinistic needs to be explored.

Blessings, Pete
 
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There is no free will. It's not biblical either. Every choice a person makes has a cause behind it. People have a will but it's not free. Free will is making a choice with no outside influence or divine will involved. People accept Christ because God dragged them to him and gave them the faith to believe in him. You believe when it's God's will that you believe. God's hardens whom he wills to harden. He has mercy on whomever he wishes when he wishes. God in his forknowledge of all the evil and sin man would commit after the fall went ahead and created man anyway. The real reason why he went ahead and created man knowing all the evil etc was because he had a magnificent plan of redemption to save all in the end and make man far greater than before the fall. God would be unwise and cruel if he created man foreknowingly that most would end up in an everlasting torture chamber or extermination lake and only willed to save maybe less than 5% of all humanity. That would be a terrible plan and a weak redemption. Fortunately God is wise and loving and had a grand plan of salvation he is working out according to the cousel of his will.
 
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