YECist's tragically weak view of God

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Chief117

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rmwilliamsll said:
Gen 1:5 And God called the light Day, and the darkness he called Night. And the evening and the morning were the first day.

God called yom the period of time the light is on, and He called night the period of time that it is not light but dark.

Please note, yom is not defined by God to be 24hrs. but rather a period of time that varies from place to place on the earth and from season to season in the same place.

It is true, 24 hours is a modern scientific description of a day. Nonetheless, it is a fitting description for even a day of ancient times, barring any minor adjustments because the earth's rotation is slowing down.

When I say 24 hours I mean merely the approximate amount of time it requires for there to be a period of light and darkness. 24 hours is a fitting description of such a cycle.

and the word yom appears twice in this verse.
the first time it is the period of light and the second it is the period marked with an evening and a morning.

Yes. I guess I didn't paint the whole picture-- 'yom can mean something other than a literal 24 hour day. It can mean a period of light, an indefinite period of time, or a full, 24-hour day to my knowledge.

The first time 'yom is used, it is NOT modified, thereby easily a different definition can be used. In context, it makes perfect sense that 'yom the first time is a period of light (approx. 12 hours).

The 2nd time it is used, it is modified with the terms "evening and morning". It is this case where the word means a full 24-hour day. Which makes sense in context, since it describes the entire 1st day of creation.

This is not a contradiction to what I previously said.

yom is used twice in Gen 1:5, and it means two different periods of time. so obviously it does not always mean a 24 hour day.

If I suggested that then I standcorrected. What I meant, and thought I said, was that it ALWAYS means a 24 hour day when it is modified. The modifications that I am aware of are numerals (ordinal or cardinal), words "evening and morning", etc.

There are a few exceptions, I'm sure, but none that really apply to Genesis 1-3.

God bless.
 
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rmwilliamsll

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It can mean a period of light


however in Gen 1:5 God is calling the light --->yom.
And God called the light Day

just as Gen 2:19
Adam to see what he would call them:

qara' see: http://www.blueletterbible.org/tmp_dir/words/7/1156311637-1689.html

what Adam called Eve in Gen 3:20

in every case it is operating as a definition.
God defines yom to be the light of day versus the darkness of night.

no where does it say that God called the daytime plus nightime a yom.

the construct for the phrase is:
evening and morning, day 1st
evening and morning, day 2nd
....

it does not say,
and God called a morning and evening a yom.


it is not that yom can be a period of daylight,
Gen 1:5 clear DEFINES yom to be the period of light.
 
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Deamiter

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This idea that yom with a number is always a literal (approximately 24-hour) day is quite contrived. It has been constructed to support six-day creationism, not as a rule in Hebrew that predates the Bible!


From http://www.ibri.org/Papers/Timothy_Test/Timtest_Rejoinder.htm
2. When the Hebrew words yom (day) or yamim appear with an ordinal number, they are always literal.

This argument fails on two counts. First, the premise is false. There are at least two instances where a number appears with a figurative use of "day." (Isaiah 9.14 [9.13 in Hebrew] and Hosea 6.2) In the Isaiah passage, the expression "one day" is exactly the same in Hebrew as the one often translated as "the first day" in Genesis 1.5. "One day" in this passage, as well as the numbered "days" in Hosea, are clearly figurative.

Second, in all cases purportedly illustrating the number/literal day correlation, it is already apparent from the context that a literal day is intended. The number is simply descriptive; it does not define "day."19 Hence, the proposed connection between the presence of a number and the meaning of "day" does not exist.

Quite simply, this grammatical rule is not based on any sort of pattern in numbering "yom." As Dr. J. Oliver Buswell Jr. has said,
http://www.asa3.org/ASA/PSCF/1990/PSCF3-90Fischer.html
It may be true that this is the only case in which the word day is used figuratively when preceded by any numeral, but the reason is that this is the only case in Scripture in which any indefinitely long periods of time are enumerated. The words "aion" in Greek and "olam" in Hebrew are literal words for "age," but we do not happen to have any case in which God has said "first age," "second age," "third age," etc. The attempt to make a grammatical rule to the effect that the numeral preceding the word day makes it literal, breaks down on the simple fact that this is the only case in all the Scriptures, and in all Hebrew language, I think, in which ages are enumerated one after the other. There is no such rule in anybody's Hebrew grammar anywhere. The author of this objection, or the one from whom he has attempted to quote, has simply put forth with a sound of authority a grammatical rule which does not exist.

We could just as easily (and just as legitimately) make up a rule that says that any instance of "yom" that is connected with the poetic phrase "evening and morning" must translate as an age... The "rule" would be just as contrived and just as (in)accurate.
 
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Chief117 said:
The problems of a Local flood are beyond numerous.
Nothing compared with the problems of a global flood. Where did the water come from, where did it go, why did it leave no trace behind? Why does every mechanism that YECs come up with to explain the flood involve the sort of energy that would boil the oceans?

Not only that, but the clear implications of a mere local flood truly do, without any biased opinions forcing or guiding it, make God a complete and total idiot--not to mention a liar.
:eek: Don't worry God will be very understanding and forgiving when we meet him face to face. 1Tim 1:13 though formerly I was a blasphemer... I received mercy because I had acted ignorantly in unbelief.


First of all, to "re-interpret" Noah's flood
I did say translate. Of course we all have to interpret what we read. But if you are labelling this as a 're-interpretation' it sounds like you are laying greater emphasis on tradition and the traditional interpretation rather than looking at what the word actually says for yourself.


one cannot merely reject the Genesis account. Other Scriptures support the global flood as well:
"But they deliberately forget that long ago by God's word the heavens existed and the earth was formed out of water and by water. By these waters also the world of that time was deluged and destroyed. By the same word the present heavens and earth are reserved for fire, being kept for the day of judgment and destruction of ungodly men." (2 Peter 3:5-7)​
First of all, notice that Peter supports the literal rendering of Genesis 1 by pointing out that the earth was "formed out of water and by water."
Though Peter's phrase here is actually difficult to understand and is translated:

formed out of water and through water ESV
out of water and with water ISV
standing out of the water and in the water AV
earth by water, and through water, having subsisted by the Word of God LITV
formed out of water and by means of water RSV
formed out of water and amid water WEB
out of water and through water standing together YLT

brought into existence out of watery chaos MSG

I don't really understand what Peter is saying here, but I have no problem with God raising the continents up out of an ancient ocean as Genesis tells us.

Secondly, notice that he makes it abundantly clear that the whole world was "deluged" (flooded) and destroyed. Just as the WHOLE earth was created, by these same waters, the WORLD was flooded and destroyed.

As if that were not enough, Peter suggests that just as the world was judged and destroyed then, so also is the present world being kept for judgment and fire. Theologically, Christians believe that it is literally the WHOLE WORLD that will be judged, not just a small section of land.
Actually Peter does not say that and there is a very specific word change in the passage that says the exact opposite.
"But they deliberately forget that long ago by God's word the heavens existed and the earth was formed out of water and by water. By these waters also the world of that time was deluged and destroyed. By the same word the present heavens and earth are reserved for fire, being kept for the day of judgment and destruction of ungodly men." (2 Peter 3:5-7)​
Peter talks of the heavens and the earth being created. He talks of the heavens and the earth being destroyed in the day of judgment. But when he talks of the flood he switches to the word 'world' kosmos, It wasn't the earth that was flooded, it was the kosmos which means fallen human civilisation (2Peter 2:5 describe the flood destroying the world kosmos of the ungodly) or even the known world (Romans 1:8). Now kosmos can mean the heavens and the earth, but Peter switched from that meaning, besides the heavens weren't flooded.

Peter's description of the flood would fit a local event if the human race was confined to one area, or even if it wiped out the known world. Note that the table of the nations only says Noah's descendants are the nations of the ancient near east, peoples from Libya to Persia. There is no claim that Celts, Xhosa, Maya or Maori are descended from the survivors of the flood. That is if you read the account literally :D





Another reason the local idea is unlikely when reviewed with other Scripture:
"..if [God] did not spare the ancient world when he brought the flood on its ungodly people, but protected Noah, a preacher of righteousness, and seven others; ..." (1 Peter 2:5)





Only 8 people survived the flood, both according to the Genesis account and Peter. If the flood were local, such a concept would not make any sense whatsoever. Many animals and people would have been around the world, unaffected by a local flood.
Again 2Pet 2:5 talks of kosmos. Noah's civilisation was certainly wiped out. Now Peter doesn't mention animals. Your NIV quote describes it he brought the flood on its ungodly people, actually kosmos again, but it certainly doesn't refer to all the animals on the planet, they don't qualify as 'ungodly'. In Genesis we only read how the flood destroyed every creature in the land (erets).


Gen 6:11 Now the land (erets) was corrupt in God's sight, and the land was filled with violence.
12 And God saw the land, and behold, it was corrupt, for all flesh had corrupted their way over the land.
13 And God said to Noah, "I have determined to make an end of all flesh, for the land is filled with violence through them. Behold, I will destroy them with the land.


God destroyed all flesh, every living creature in that land.

And then you've got all the problems and complaints that sites like AIG have excellent arguments for. I will summarize some of the complaints, but you can read it for yourself.
These are really very silly reasons that AiG come up with. They say why should God do it that way, and the very simple answer is 'why not'. God could do it any way he saw fit. Just because AiG doesn't see his reasons, or don't want to, it doesn't mean God didn't have very good reasons for doing it that way. God doesn't tell us why in most cases, but let's look at some plausible reasons why God might have done it that way.
1 If the flood were local, Noah wouldn't need to build an ark. He could have merely relocated instead of spending nearly 100 years building a boat.
Ever try herding cats? Or how about bringing enough food to feed all the animals in the great migration across the ANE? Then we read that Noah was called to be a preacher of righteousness, not to turn tail and run like Jonah.

2 Noah would not need to collect a few of each kind of animal. The local region to be flooded just would have been repopulated by animals from surrounding regions.
All of the indigenous species would have been wiped out as would all domesticated species. God may also care about families. We see the care taken to preserve the Benjamite tribe when the men were killed instead of simply repopulating the are from surrounding Israelites. God cares for animals too.

3 If the flood were local, why did it need to carry birds? They could have just flown to a new area.
Ever see a chicken try to fly, or swim? How would birds fly in a forty day torrential downpour?

4 If the flood were local, then God is a LIAR. God promises at the end of the flood to never send such a flood again (Gen 9:11). Yet MANY (local) floods have happened since Noah's day.

It is amazing the blasphemies that come out of godfearing sites like AiG. But God is not a liar. There never was a flood like it since. YECs read local flood and think in terms of their local shop (this is a local flood for local people), but the phrase means local as opposed to global. The area covered may have been vast.

In all honesty, I would rather you take the position that Genesis is "mythical." I hate the concept, I'd think you were wrong, but at least it would be somewhat defensible. The idea of a local flood makes God an idiot and a liar.

Of course, the most logical conclusion, and only one that harmonizes with all of Scripture, is that the ENTIRE globe was flooded. And that is the story that I adhere to. I believe God did it the way He said He did.
Except the bible never says the entire globe was flooded, so I don't see why it would make him a liar. All the bible ever mentions is a flood wiping out life in a region and God promising the survivors not to do it to them again.

God bless.
Cheers.
 
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Chief117

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Assyrian said:
Nothing compared with the problems of a global flood. Where did the water come from, where did it go, why did it leave no trace behind? Why does every mechanism that YECs come up with to explain the flood involve the sort of energy that would boil the oceans?

The Bible's pretty clear where the water came from and where it went. By "all the water" I assume you have a problem with the sheer amount of it you'd need to cover the mountains--which is a uniformitarian complaint. It doesn't violate fact, but rather an assumption (namely that the mountains were as high then as they are now). The Bible teaches that the mountains rose up and the valleys sank to all the waters to recede.


:eek: Don't worry God will be very understanding and forgiving when we meet him face to face. 1Tim 1:13 though formerly I was a blasphemer... I received mercy because I had acted ignorantly in unbelief.


This would bother me if it left any room for me to be wrong. But whereas most arguments deal with opinion and personal interpretation, it is very simple and objective approach to determine if someone is lieing.

"I won't do it again." Then he does it again. = Liar.

My God doesn't lie. And I don't have to make up stories about interpretations or translations in order to avoid the claim. God above interpretation of science, my brother.


I did say translate. Of course we all have to interpret what we read. But if you are labelling this as a 're-interpretation' it sounds like you are laying greater emphasis on tradition and the traditional interpretation rather than looking at what the word actually says for yourself.

I am laying great emphasis on (a) what it says, (b) what the WHOLE of Scripture teaches on the subject, not just Genesis, (c) what the early church would have believed, as they would have been the closest to Jesus and those taught directly by him, and (d) sound logic.

Though Peter's phrase here is actually difficult to understand and is translated:

formed out of water and through water ESV
out of water and with water ISV
standing out of the water and in the water AV
earth by water, and through water, having subsisted by the Word of God LITV
formed out of water and by means of water RSV
formed out of water and amid water WEB
out of water and through water standing together YLT

brought into existence out of watery chaos MSG

I don't really understand what Peter is saying here, but I have no problem with God raising the continents up out of an ancient ocean as Genesis tells us.

It's not that hard to figure out, brother. It is a reference from Genesis 1. The earth was made, and it was covered with deep oceans (Gen 1:2). Then there was a separation between waters to make the atmosphere--whatever this means--(Gene 1:7). Then the water was parted to allow dry land (Gen 1:9).

It's a reference to the early nature of what Christ created. The earth was covered with water.

Actually Peter does not say that and there is a very specific word change in the passage that says the exact opposite.
"But they deliberately forget that long ago by God's word the heavens existed and the earth was formed out of water and by water. By these waters also the world of that time was deluged and destroyed. By the same word the present heavens and earth are reserved for fire, being kept for the day of judgment and destruction of ungodly men." (2 Peter 3:5-7)​
Peter talks of the heavens and the earth being created. He talks of the heavens and the earth being destroyed in the day of judgment. But when he talks of the flood he switches to the word 'world' kosmos, It wasn't the earth that was flooded, it was the kosmos which means fallen human civilisation (2Peter 2:5 describe the flood destroying the world kosmos of the ungodly) or even the known world (Romans 1:8). Now kosmos can mean the heavens and the earth, but Peter switched from that meaning, besides the heavens weren't flooded.

OK, this is a sad attempt at denying Scripture. I think the more logical conclusion would be, not that Peter switched from one meaning to another, but that all bear the same meaning as he was in the same thought and sentence. And besides the fact, switching from "heavens and earth" being flooded to the "globe" being flooded is not necessarily a bad idea--it is more correct.

This particular passage bears a LOT of theological importance as well. If only a small area were flooded, and many people escaped (e.g. Celts), as you claim, then in essence these people escaped God's judgment on sin. Since the new judgment is compared to this one, you are now faced with the unBiblical position that some can/will escape judgment again.
 
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Deamiter

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This particular passage bears a LOT of theological importance as well. If only a small area were flooded, and many people escaped (e.g. Celts), as you claim, then in essence these people escaped God's judgment on sin. Since the new judgment is compared to this one, you are now faced with the unBiblical position that some can/will escape judgment again.
Then again, you've drawn this conclusion (that our view requires that some escaped God's judgement) based on the YEC assumption that God intended to kill every human in the entire Earth.

In order to legitimately address Theistic Evolution, you must acknowledge a different interpretation of MANY passages -- if you criticize a TE understanding of one passage mentioning the flood based on a YEC understanding of another, you've created a straw man.

Much of the discussion I see here has this problem. The bottom line is that both TE and YEC are largely scripturally consistant. If you can't see this, you can be sure you've only understood a small part of the other position and are misrepresenting the other position in this type of, "but if that's true then God is ____"argument.

To answer your actual post, as a narrative about the nature of God's judgement, this passage conveys exactly the same theological point. It's only if you assume that it WAS historical and that God really intended to kill all but 8 humans that there's any problem.
 
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Chief117

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Peter's description of the flood would fit a local event if the human race was confined to one area, or even if it wiped out the known world. Note that the table of the nations only says Noah's descendants are the nations of the ancient near east, peoples from Libya to Persia. There is no claim that Celts, Xhosa, Maya or Maori are descended from the survivors of the flood. That is if you read the account literally :D

I wish I could argue your point, but I don't know enough about those people groups to make a claim. It would not be unheard of that the genealogy is not complete, but rather focused--but as you said, you were making a point about taking what is written.

Nonetheless, Genesis teaches all men descended initially through Adam and Eve and then through Noah and the other 7 survivors of the flood. This is evidenced not only by the flood account in general, but also by God's command to the 8 survivors to "be fruitful and increase in number and fill the earth" (Gen 9:1).

It would be a strange command if other people groups were still alive at the time, having missed the judgment for their sin.

I also wanted to make one more point: I believe there was only 1 landmass prior to the flood, as suggested by Genesis 1. It would not be a valid claim then to suggest that these people surrounding "modern Israel" did not include "modern America" in their "known world." The world would have been much different. There only would have been a "local" landmass, by your apparent definition, but if it were covered then the whole world would have likewise been covered by water--just as Moses and Peter said.

Gen 6:11 Now the land (erets) was corrupt in God's sight, and the land was filled with violence.
12 And God saw the land, and behold, it was corrupt, for all flesh had corrupted their way over the land.
13 And God said to Noah, "I have determined to make an end of all flesh, for the land is filled with violence through them. Behold, I will destroy them with the land.


God destroyed all flesh, every living creature in that land.

First of all, I point out that just because erets can mean a "local" area of land, it can also mean the whole world as I contend. What you need to do is establish why your translation better fits the text.

I contend that all the globe was covered because the flood was a judgment for sin, and all the sin was purged and cleansed. Even the passage above says "all" flesh/people. All of them.

Furthermore, the mountains were covered, as mentioned in Genesis 7:20 and Psalms 104:6. David apparently agreed with the global flood as well:
"He set the earth [erets] on its foundations; it can never be moved. You covered it with the deep as with a garment; the waters stood above the mountains." (Psalm 104:5-6).
These are really very silly reasons that AiG come up with. They say why should God do it that way, and the very simple answer is 'why not'. God could do it any way he saw fit. Just because AiG doesn't see his reasons, or don't want to, it doesn't mean God didn't have very good reasons for doing it that way. God doesn't tell us why in most cases, but let's look at some plausible reasons why God might have done it that way.

Well that is definitely your opinion--and one I have a hard time accepting that you actually believe. The arguments presented are very logical, and difficult to get around, which is my guess as to why they are "very silly."

The answer to "why not" is that it does not make sense. If the flood wasn't threat to all animals or all life in all the world, then why did they need to be on a boat? "Why not" just isn't a sufficient answer. Not in this case.

Ever try herding cats? Or how about bringing enough food to feed all the animals in the great migration across the ANE? Then we read that Noah was called to be a preacher of righteousness, not to turn tail and run like Jonah.

First, what is ANE? Second, I would guess that i have not done either of the things above. Third, I don't see how it matters.

God specifically tells Noah "You are to take every kind of food that is to be eaten and store it away as food for you and for them." (Gen 6:21). He had plenty of time to do it.

How would it be "turn tail and run[ning]" if he were fleeing a great flood? There is nothing wrong with avoiding death. But the obvious truth remains that a boat is not needed if Noah could have simply moved. Nonetheless, God has Noah build a HUGE boat, big enough for all the kinds of animals. Such a large vessel would have likely risked running aground in a local flood.

Despite all the logical reasoning we are capable of, there is further evidence--other cultures. There are hundreds of flood accounts similar to Noah's, wherein a world-wide flood destroyed everything but one family, who had built a boat. This fits well with my worldview, wherein all peoples shared a common ancestry and were descended from Adam/Eve and later Noah. It doesn't fit so well with other theories, and is really rather baffling.

Ever see a chicken try to fly, or swim? How would birds fly in a forty day torrential downpour?

Good point. However, usually animals have this innate ability to sense bad weather, and tend to flee in front of it. The birds probably all would have left prior to the downpour.

It is amazing the blasphemies that come out of godfearing sites like AiG. But God is not a liar. There never was a flood like it since. YECs read local flood and think in terms of their local shop (this is a local flood for local people), but the phrase means local as opposed to global. The area covered may have been vast.

Small or slightly larger, its all the same. The theory still doesn't fit the text. It still has grave theological implications.

Except the bible never says the entire globe was flooded, so I don't see why it would make him a liar. All the bible ever mentions is a flood wiping out life in a region and God promising the survivors not to do it to them again.


Cheers.

No, even seemingly by your own admission, "region" is only a possible translation. And I will concede the point. However, Scripture comments on itself, and you have to reconcile what the whole of it says, not just one passage (as it clear as that passage may be). Just as easily as your "region" theory, the Bible could be saying Global. It just so happens that the WHOLE of Scripture, as well as reason, support a global flood perspective.

God Bless.
 
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Chief117

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Deamiter said:
Then again, you've drawn this conclusion (that our view requires that some escaped God's judgement) based on the YEC assumption that God intended to kill every human in the entire Earth.

In order to legitimately address Theistic Evolution, you must acknowledge a different interpretation of MANY passages -- if you criticize a TE understanding of one passage mentioning the flood based on a YEC understanding of another, you've created a straw man.

Much of the discussion I see here has this problem. The bottom line is that both TE and YEC are largely scripturally consistant. If you can't see this, you can be sure you've only understood a small part of the other position and are misrepresenting the other position in this type of, "but if that's true then God is ____"argument.

To answer your actual post, as a narrative about the nature of God's judgement, this passage conveys exactly the same theological point. It's only if you assume that it WAS historical and that God really intended to kill all but 8 humans that there's any problem.

You know...in all honesty, I was just beginning to sense that.

You guys haven't really convinced me that you are right--I still think you're wrong--but after regurgitating your positions for so long as I thought out my posts, it seems as though your view is consistent with itself insofar as I can tell.

You're right--I did the same thing that ticks me off when Evolutionists do it. They claim I am wrong because my view contradicts something they established, one of their assumptions.

Well, I've made my point known. I'm going to leave it at that. I don't like it, but its better than sucking my life dry.

God Bless.
 
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Chief117 said:
The Bible's pretty clear where the water came from and where it went. By "all the water" I assume you have a problem with the sheer amount of it you'd need to cover the mountains--which is a uniformitarian complaint. It doesn't violate fact, but rather an assumption (namely that the mountains were as high then as they are now).
15 cubits over the highest hills on the planet is still a massive amount of water. You have whatever the altitude of the highest hill plus enough water to cover it 15 cubits. 20 cubits of water is the equivalent of one atmosphere of pressure.

The Bible teaches that the mountains rose up and the valleys sank to all the waters to recede.
Psalm 104, but this is a creation psalm arranged on the order of of the days of creation in Genesis 1. The mountains rising up and valleys sinking is talking about
Gen 1:9
And God said, "Let the waters under the heavens be gathered together into one place, and let the dry land appear." And it was so.

Psalm 104:5 He set the earth on its foundations, so that it should never be moved.
6 You covered it with the deep as with a garment; the waters stood above the mountains.
7 At your rebuke they fled; at the sound of your thunder they took to flight.
8 The mountains rose, the valleys sank down to the place that you appointed for them.


This is the creation.

This would bother me if it left any room for me to be wrong. But whereas most arguments deal with opinion and personal interpretation, it is very simple and objective approach to determine if someone is lieing.
Lying and an idiot :(

"I won't do it again." Then he does it again. = Liar.

My God doesn't lie. And I don't have to make up stories about interpretations or translations in order to avoid the claim. God above interpretation of science, my brother.
And if God is above your interpretation of the flood, you are going to have a bit of apologising to do.

I am laying great emphasis on (a) what it says,
That the whole land was flooded...

(b) what the WHOLE of Scripture teaches on the subject, not just Genesis,
That's basically Genesis, Peter and Jesus and Jesus never mentioned a global flood either.

(c) what the early church would have believed, as they would have been the closest to Jesus and those taught directly by him,
Except we have no record of Jesus supporting your interpretation, so you have no evidence that is what he taught his disciples.

and (d) sound logic.
The bible doesn't say the flood was global, there is no scientific evidence for a global flood, ergo, a global flood is a very shaky hypothesis.

It's not that hard to figure out, brother. It is a reference from Genesis 1. The earth was made, and it was covered with deep oceans (Gen 1:2). Then there was a separation between waters to make the atmosphere--whatever this means--(Gene 1:7). Then the water was parted to allow dry land (Gen 1:9).

It's a reference to the early nature of what Christ created. The earth was covered with water.
No problem with that, the earth was pretty much covered by ocean 4 billion years ago. My difficulty is what precisely 'the earth standing together, 'out of water' and 'through water' mean.

OK, this is a sad attempt at denying Scripture.
Simply looking at what scripture actually says rather than what tradition tells us it is supposed to mean.

I think the more logical conclusion would be, not that Peter switched from one meaning to another, but that all bear the same meaning as he was in the same thought and sentence. And besides the fact, switching from "heavens and earth" being flooded to the "globe" being flooded is not necessarily a bad idea--it is more correct.
Earth and kosmos being synonyms is a plausible interpretation and would certainly be the most logical if there was evidence for a global flood in the rest of scripture, but there isn't. And because Peter does switch terms, there is no evidence for a global flood in his writings. I would have though the the term 'earth' in 'the heavens and the earth' would be a very good way to describe a global flood or one that covered every bit of land on the planet. Yet every time Peter talks about the flood he consistently uses the word kosmos, 2Pet 3:6 and twice in 2Pet 2:5.

This particular passage bears a LOT of theological importance as well. If only a small area were flooded, and many people escaped (e.g. Celts), as you claim, then in essence these people escaped God's judgment on sin. Since the new judgment is compared to this one, you are now faced with the unBiblical position that some can/will escape judgment again.
2Pet 2:5 if he did not spare the ancient world, but preserved Noah, a herald of righteousness, with seven others, when he brought a flood upon the world of the ungodly;
6 if by turning the cities of Sodom and Gomorrah to ashes he condemned them to extinction, making them an example of what is going to happen to the ungodly;
7 and if he rescued righteous Lot... 9 then the Lord knows how to rescue the godly from trials.

People in Zoar (and the rest of the world) escaped when Sodom and Gomorrah were destroyed. Peter didn't have a theological problem using that as an example. Neither did Jesus who used both the flood and Sodom and Gomorrah examples too Luke 17:26-29.
 
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Chief117 said:
I wish I could argue your point, but I don't know enough about those people groups to make a claim. It would not be unheard of that the genealogy is not complete, but rather focused--but as you said, you were making a point about taking what is written.
Google 'table of the nations' and click on images.

Nonetheless, Genesis teaches all men descended initially through Adam and Eve and then through Noah and the other 7 survivors of the flood. This is evidenced not only by the flood account in general, but also by God's command to the 8 survivors to "be fruitful and increase in number and fill the earth" (Gen 9:1).
Or: be fruitful and increase in number and fill the land :D

It would be a strange command if other people groups were still alive at the time, having missed the judgment for their sin.

I also wanted to make one more point: I believe there was only 1 landmass prior to the flood, as suggested by Genesis 1. It would not be a valid claim then to suggest that these people surrounding "modern Israel" did not include "modern America" in their "known world." The world would have been much different. There only would have been a "local" landmass, by your apparent definition, but if it were covered then the whole world would have likewise been covered by water--just as Moses and Peter said.
There certainly was one landmass in the time of Pangaea, but by the time man arrived the continents had separated. I don't see how you can have our present continents formed in a very short period without catastrophic vulcanism filling the whole atmosphere with sulphur dioxide and pyroclastic flow, and boiling the oceans as continents rip apart exposing the searing mantle beneath. :eek:

First of all, I point out that just because erets can mean a "local" area of land, it can also mean the whole world as I contend. What you need to do is establish why your translation better fits the text.
I agree both are plausible interpretations. But given that one is contradicted by the evidence of what actually happened on the planet, I see no reason to choose that one.

In terms of the word erets itself, it is used much more often to refer to land than the planet and if we look at the context in Genesis, in the previous chapters from Gen 2:11 on, it is used to refer to a land.

I contend that all the globe was covered because the flood was a judgment for sin, and all the sin was purged and cleansed. Even the passage above says "all" flesh/people. All of them.
All of them in the land, as God says.



Furthermore, the mountains were covered, as mentioned in Genesis 7:20 and Psalms 104:6. David apparently agreed with the global flood as well:
"He set the earth [erets] on its foundations; it can never be moved. You covered it with the deep as with a garment; the waters stood above the mountains." (Psalm 104:5-6).​
(Emphasis mine)
As I said it is talking about the creation. Even more interesting, we are told that this primordial ocean covering the whole planet would never happen again.
Psalm 104:9 You set a boundary that they may not pass, so that they might not again cover the earth. This was during the creation and contradicts a global flood in Noah's time.


Well that is definitely your opinion--and one I have a hard time accepting that you actually believe. The arguments presented are very logical, and difficult to get around, which is my guess as to why they are "very silly."
No they are just silly.

The answer to "why not" is that it does not make sense. If the flood wasn't threat to all animals or all life in all the world, then why did they need to be on a boat? "Why not" just isn't a sufficient answer. Not in this case.
God's ways are above our ways. It is entirely possible he has reasons for doing things that don't make sense to people in AiG. I went into the animals that would be endangered and the difficulties in moving them any other way.

First, what is ANE? Second, I would guess that i have not done either of the things above. Third, I don't see how it matters.
Ancient Near East, sorry it save typing it out all the time.

If cats are pretty well impossible to herd and molluscs slither very slowly, then migrating all the animals out of the area, possibly a very large area, is not practical. Building a ship to hold then and their food is a much simpler solution.

God specifically tells Noah "You are to take every kind of food that is to be eaten and store it away as food for you and for them." (Gen 6:21). He had plenty of time to do it.
And AiG suggests he carry all that food in a mass migration. There is only so much the animals could forage on the way, especially the carnivores.

How would it be "turn tail and run[ning]" if he were fleeing a great flood? There is nothing wrong with avoiding death.
Noah was called to preach repentance, he would not have been able to do this if he had disappeared herding a menagerie out of the area.

But the obvious truth remains that a boat is not needed if Noah could have simply moved. Nonetheless, God has Noah build a HUGE boat, big enough for all the kinds of animals. Such a large vessel would have likely risked running aground in a local flood.
It was designed to run aground.

Despite all the logical reasoning we are capable of, there is further evidence--other cultures. There are hundreds of flood accounts similar to Noah's, wherein a world-wide flood destroyed everything but one family, who had built a boat. This fits well with my worldview, wherein all peoples shared a common ancestry and were descended from Adam/Eve and later Noah. It doesn't fit so well with other theories, and is really rather baffling.
Or when people build their villages beside rivers. You can get lots of flood legends that way too.

Good point. However, usually animals have this innate ability to sense bad weather, and tend to flee in front of it. The birds probably all would have left prior to the downpour.
Even the chickens?

Small or slightly larger, its all the same. The theory still doesn't fit the text. It still has grave theological implications.
Such as?

No, even seemingly by your own admission, "region" is only a possible translation. And I will concede the point. However, Scripture comments on itself, and you have to reconcile what the whole of it says, not just one passage (as it clear as that passage may be). Just as easily as your "region" theory, the Bible could be saying Global. It just so happens that the WHOLE of Scripture, as well as reason, support a global flood perspective.
What WHOLE of scripture? There isn't a single verse anywhere in scripture that tells us the flood was global.

God Bless.
And you Chief.
 
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I really didn't want to get back into this discussion as the whole thing has left a bad taste in my mouth, but

The theory of pangea, is in itself just as big a stretch scientifically speaking, as a global flood.

They are saying that all the high points (dry land) on earth were concentrated at one "plateau" and that they broke apart.

Sure it makes sense as an explanation for evolution, but if they were speaking about it with the factor of explaining evolution divorced from it, it would be mocked endlessly, as foolish.

unless of course you are saying that God did it, and then seperated the continents, which has no basis in scripture that I am aware of.

But the concept of pangea in itself at least in a scientific sence could only exist as a miracle if even at all.

And as to the "jigsaw puzzle" that most of us were required to make in school its coincidental at best.
For the record I have heard of an alternate theory, but its pretty far fetched in itself though quite interesting in demonstration
 
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chris777 said:
I really didn't want to get back into this discussion as the whole thing has left a bad taste in my mouth, but

The theory of pangea, is in itself just as big a stretch scientifically speaking, as a global flood.

They are saying that all the high points (dry land) on earth were concentrated at one "plateau" and that they broke apart.

Sure it makes sense as an explanation for evolution, but if they were speaking about it with the factor of explaining evolution divorced from it, it would be mocked endlessly, as foolish.

unless of course you are saying that God did it, and then seperated the continents, which has no basis in scripture that I am aware of.

But the concept of pangea in itself at least in a scientific sence could only exist as a miracle if even at all.

And as to the "jigsaw puzzle" that most of us were required to make in school its coincidental at best.
For the record I have heard of an alternate theory, but its pretty far fetched in itself though quite interesting in demonstration

Well, not that I want to jump back into a debate either...and personally, I want to agree with you. I don't know how much I buy the whole "supercontinent" idea myself--either the YEC version or the evolutionary one.

I can't remember what your position is, but this is the possible explanation for "Pangea" from a YEC/Global Flood perspective (in plain language, cuz I'm lazy right now):

On Day 3, when God made the "dry land" appear, the text seems to suggest that there was only one "continent." See that part of Genesis 1 to see what I mean.

Now, if that were true, and we need some Biblical explanation for the present continents...I would point to the flood.

In the least, the flood (I'm assuming a global flood) would have been catastrophic. The Bible says that the "fountains of the deep" broke, which might suggest massive tectonic activity.

It is at this time, in my opinion, that the face of the earth changed and we got our many continents.

If you assume, like I always have, that Psalm 104 is in reference to the flood, then you will again see evidence of massive tectonic activity--the mountains arose, the valleys sank down, and "God set the boundaries" of the water. To me, this suggests that the earth took its present "form." (The main problem with using Psalm 104 though is that it may be referring to the Creation week, as someone pointed out above).

I'm assuming my TE brothers :wave: are going to come out here though and start talking about how such things would have "boiled the oceans," and there is no evidence for a global flood, and the continents couldn't have moved that quickly, and in general argue many other points. But I no longer wish to debate, and wanted to give you something to think about, in case you hadn't heard it before.

Hopefully that helps. ;)

God Bless.
 
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chris777

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I can't remember what your position is

Let me try to make this succinct for everyone, but you pretty much summed it up for me with
The Bible says
I hope thats clear enough for everyone.

Well, not that I want to jump back into a debate either...and personally, I want to agree with you. I don't know how much I buy the whole "supercontinent" idea myself--either the YEC version or the evolutionary one.

I can't remember what your position is, but this is the possible explanation for "Pangea" from a YEC/Global Flood perspective (in plain language, cuz I'm lazy right now):
Careful you don't want to simplify it to the point it will go over the heads of the intelectual eliete.

On Day 3, when God made the "dry land" appear, the text seems to suggest that there was only one "continent." See that part of Genesis 1 to see what I mean.

Now, if that were true, and we need some Biblical explanation for the present continents...I would point to the flood.

In the least, the flood (I'm assuming a global flood) would have been catastrophic. The Bible says that the "fountains of the deep" broke, which might suggest massive tectonic activity.

It is at this time, in my opinion, that the face of the earth changed and we got our many continents.

If you assume, like I always have, that Psalm 104 is in reference to the flood, then you will again see evidence of massive tectonic activity--the mountains arose, the valleys sank down, and "God set the boundaries" of the water. To me, this suggests that the earth took its present "form." (The main problem with using Psalm 104 though is that it may be referring to the Creation week, as someone pointed out above).

I'm assuming my TE brothers :wave: are going to come out here though and start talking about how such things would have "boiled the oceans," and there is no evidence for a global flood, and the continents couldn't have moved that quickly, and in general argue many other points. But I no longer wish to debate, and wanted to give you something to think about, in case you hadn't heard it before.

Hopefully that helps. ;)

God Bless.
Well The whole pangea issue is in itself a theory built in an attempt to substantiate, evolution.
I am not disputing plate tectonics , but not endorsing them either.
But the Notion that their was 1 Supercontinent, in my opinion is far more ludicrous, than the global flood that is decried could ever be.
Given the "random" factor that evolutionist proclaim , It just seems impossible for all of the mountains and volcanos, on the globe to all be in the same focal point in the form of a massive plateau/mountain, with the rest of the globe(or at least the majority) all being below sea level.
But Again I suppose its possible if God created it that way.
But I am extremely cautious about making conjecture that directly adds to what the scripture states.
Especially when its conjecture, based on conjecture based on conjecture. Which is what all these theoies really are.
Evidence used to proove or disprove a conjecture(hypothesis)
is invariably subject to the whims of those tha tweild it.
Their are just too many variables that could "taint" the evidence that is often used that it is almost worthless, unless of course, it suits the agenda of those that use it. Just imagine all of the $ that would go down the drain if evolution were proven false. How many marketing campaigns would be destroyed? how many things would be uprooted? And don't even get me started on the laughable "fossil record" or for that matter "fossil fuels" both of which particurlarly the latter, are also subject to monetary "territories" of the wealthy. And have just as many problems as "pangea" and "evolution" They just don't Jive unless of course they are prejudically interpreted.
Much in the same way that those that believe in the "pre tribulation rapture" do. They have a pre concieved notion of these things , and therefore use whatever part of the "evidence" they see to choose fit to substantiate their belief.
Rather than taking something at face value.
 
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Let me try to make this succinct for everyone, but you pretty much summed it up for me with

I hope thats clear enough for everyone.


Careful you don't want to simplify it to the point it will go over the heads of the intelectual eliete.


Well The whole pangea issue is in itself a theory built in an attempt to substantiate, evolution.
I am not disputing plate tectonics , but not endorsing them either.
But the Notion that their was 1 Supercontinent, in my opinion is far more ludicrous, than the global flood that is decried could ever be.
Given the "random" factor that evolutionist proclaim , It just seems impossible for all of the mountains and volcanos, on the globe to all be in the same focal point in the form of a massive plateau/mountain, with the rest of the globe(or at least the majority) all being below sea level.
But Again I suppose its possible if God created it that way.
But I am extremely cautious about making conjecture that directly adds to what the scripture states.
Especially when its conjecture, based on conjecture based on conjecture. Which is what all these theoies really are.
Evidence used to proove or disprove a conjecture(hypothesis)
is invariably subject to the whims of those tha tweild it.
Their are just too many variables that could "taint" the evidence that is often used that it is almost worthless, unless of course, it suits the agenda of those that use it. Just imagine all of the $ that would go down the drain if evolution were proven false. How many marketing campaigns would be destroyed? how many things would be uprooted? And don't even get me started on the laughable "fossil record" or for that matter "fossil fuels" both of which particurlarly the latter, are also subject to monetary "territories" of the wealthy.
And have just as many problems as "pangea" and "evolution" They just don't Jive unless of course they are prejudically interpreted.
Much in the same way that those that believe in the "pre tribulation rapture" do. They have a pre concieved notion of these things , and therefore use whatever part of the "evidence" they see to choose fit to substantiate their belief.
Rather than taking something at face value.

I'll let someone else tackle the science errors in this post, but I want to address the conspiracy theory idea. Are you aware that if the Global Flood could better explain fossil fuels than paleontology, oil companies would be using Creation science to find oil, not geology. Companies use what works best to make money. Geology has shown to be time and time again more effect than any Creation Science when it comes to finding oil.

On top of this, any scientist that disproves evolution wins $1 million dollars because he/she will win the Nobel Prize. Do you really think that evolution is wrong, but somehow, every single scientist and graduate student signed some blood pact to not collect the money and instead, support some fake science to get funding? It's about as silly of an idea as energy companies suppressing a free energy machine in order to stay in business or drug companies hiding an AIDs cure from the general public. If you really think its possible to have a conspiracy so massive that 99% of biologists, almost every single university and college, and nearly every single graduate student is a part of it, then I suggest you put down the Da Vinci Code, and pick up a science papers and start reading. There is no conspiracy, just sound science. Until you show otherwise, it's just the same rantings as the people that think perpetual motion exists.

EDIT: BTW, I'm also taking a genetic engineering class and I'm attending several biology conferences. To suggest that scientists have a massive conspiracy would also imply that many Christians such as myself are a part of this conspiracy just to make money. I doubt I would be selling my soul for $5000 a semester.
 
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I'm also taking a genetic engineering class and I'm attending several biology conferences. To suggest that scientists have a massive conspiracy would also imply that many Christians such as myself are a part of this conspiracy just to make money. I doubt I would be selling my soul for $5000 a semester.

I don't think a consipircy is what is going on, I think the problem is that we are suppose to assume a common ancestor dispite evidence to the contrary. Here is a new insight into an old problem for evolutionists. Our brians are about three times what chimpanzees are and their brain is about 3 times the average for other mammals.

One of the problems with this is how nature pulled this off using naturalistic mechanisms. Maybe you would like to consider this giant leap in evolution:

"We devised a ranking of regions in the human genome that show significant evolutionary acceleration. Here we report that the most dramatic of these 'human accelerated regions', HAR1, is part of a novel RNA gene (HAR1F) that is expressed specifically in Cajal-Retzius neurons in the developing human neocortex from 7 to 19 gestational weeks, a crucial period for cortical neuron specification and migration. HAR1F is co-expressed with reelin, a product of Cajal-Retzius neurons that is of fundamental importance in specifying the six-layer structure of the human cortex. HAR1 and the other human accelerated regions provide new candidates in the search for uniquely human biology." (Pollard KS and 15 others. 2006. An RNA gene expressed during cortical development evolved rapidly in humans)


http://johnhawks.net/weblog/2006/08/16

So you have a gene conserved for 310 million years and then in a couple of million years it has 18 nucleotides substituted. Why the dramatic change is the question that occurs to me and how was it now a devastating deleterious mutation? Human accelerated regions is an area that will get more and more attention and the possibility of special creation is still a viable answer.

Your thoughts...
 
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They are saying that all the high points (dry land) on earth were concentrated at one "plateau" and that they broke apart.
Well, you may not like it, but believe it or not, there's some science behind Pangaea and continental drift! Try reading about the Wilson cycle, for example:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wilson_cycle
http://www.gsajournals.org/i0091-7613-31-6-e9.pdf#search="filetype:pdf wilson cycle"
http://www.geodynamics.no/VISTA/HartzTorsvik2002.pdf#search="filetype:pdf "wilson cycle""
... and technical references therein.
If you're going to continue to voice your disagreement on the subject on Pangaea, you're going to have to specifically refute and correct the science you so object to. "I've got an inkling my Bible says otherwise" is not a valid scientific answer, and certainly won't do anything to change the minds of the masses, Christian or otherwise.
Sure it makes sense as an explanation for evolution, but if they were speaking about it with the factor of explaining evolution divorced from it, it would be mocked endlessly, as foolish.
Plate tectonics, Pangaea, the Wilson cycle, etc. are spoken of outside the realm of evolution ALL THE TIME. Take some courses in geology before you spout off about something you don't know. It REALLY irritates me when someone discharges lies about a subject they know nothing of. Jesus hated hypocrisy, and so do I. I appologize if this makes me intelectualy eliete (read: "intellectually elite"), but I try to refrain from being intellectually lazy, as others in this thread have admitted. An understanding of the world may not lead us to salvation, which is why we are encouraged not to rely only upon it (Ecc 1:18), but God encourages us to use our minds nonetheless (Pro 4:7, Pro 3:13).
But the concept of pangea in itself at least in a scientific sence could only exist as a miracle if even at all.
The science says otherwise. Again, see the articles and references therein that I cited above, THEN comment.
And as to the "jigsaw puzzle" that most of us were required to make in school its coincidental at best.
Coupled with the palaeobiogeographic distribution of things like lystrosaurs, the extension of mountain ranges on either side of the oceans, and the geologic evidence left by ancient glaciers, it doesn't seem so "coincidental" after all.
Chief117 said:
In the least, the flood (I'm assuming a global flood) would have been catastrophic. The Bible says that the "fountains of the deep" broke, which might suggest massive tectonic activity.
Water doesn't push continents apart because it is not viscous. Cooling lava at divergent plate boundaries does. If you have evidence to the contrary, please feel free to present it here.
 
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But the Notion that their was 1 Supercontinent, in my opinion is far more ludicrous, than the global flood that is decried could ever be.
Given the "random" factor that evolutionist proclaim , It just seems impossible for all of the mountains and volcanos, on the globe to all be in the same focal point in the form of a massive plateau/mountain, with the rest of the globe(or at least the majority) all being below sea level.

Who'da thunk?​
 
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humbledbyhim

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I can follow most of your "examples," but this one I have to step up and take the YEC position. There is a serious problem when begin suggesting that God created evil.

Evil is not a created thing. It is a product of our free will. If evil were created, as you above imply, then you do taint the character of God. So this one, I'll have to hold to.
Isaiah 45:7 (King James Version)King James Version (KJV) 7I form the light, and create darkness: I make peace, and create evil: I the LORD do all these things.
 
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humbledbyhim

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What I was trying to point out in my jumbled post is this:Isaiah 45:7 (King James Version)King James Version (KJV)Public Domain 7I form the light, and create darkness: I make peace, and create evil: I the LORD do all these things.evil was created by God. We can't search his understanding, but that's what he did.
 
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