If I was convinced that Zechariah 14:8 is not meaning post the 2nd coming, in that case I would have no choice but to agree with your interpretation of that verse. But luckily for me I'm not convinced that Zechariah 14:8 is meaning before the 2nd coming, therefore I'm not obligated to interpret that verse in light of John 7:38-39. For one thing, in regards to the living waters, it has them being divided into 2 halves. How can anything involving the Holy Spirit be divided into 2 halves? How is one to make sense out of that?
As to the living waters meant, what comes to mind to me is Revelation 22:1-2, for one, and not John 7:38-39 instead. As to Revelation 22:1-2, per my view that is meaning post the 2nd coming, per your view it might not be meaning post the 2nd coming, I don't know unless you tell me first. The time Revelation 22:1-2 is involving is the time Zechariah 14:8 is involving, in my opinion.
So, admittedly, all you have is a hunch?
My interpretation Just doesn’t FEEL right to you?
It appears you just admitted to everyone here that you interpret this scripture based on your previously held belief. That your previously held belief is determining for you what the scripture means when you should be doing exactly the opposite.
We should be conforming our beliefs to fit the meaning of scripture. We should not be conforming the meaning of scripture to fit our beliefs, as you have just asserted you are doing with Zechariah 14.
Again I will ask, what OT scripture foretelling the arrival of “rivers of living water” is Jesus quoting in John 7:38-39, if NOT Zechariah 14:8?
Chapter and verse please.
Also, do you believe the Rivers of living water Jesus mentioned in John 7:38-39 are a present reality (as I do) or do you believe we have to yet wait until some unknown future date for them? And, are the Rivers of Living water in John 7:38-39 inferior, superior or equal to the Rivers of living water found in Zechariah 14:8?
For one thing, in regards to the living waters, it has them being divided into 2 halves. How can anything involving the Holy Spirit be divided into 2 halves? How is one to make sense out of that?
Does not Jew and Gentile alike receive an equal portion of The Holy Spirit? (
Acts 10:43-45)
Is there any other people outside the two halves of Jew/Gentile that the Living waters of the Holy Spirit equally flow unto?
It teaches it in Zechariah 14 itself
Do tell.
Please show me where Zechariah distinguishes the first coming from the second coming. Where can I find the term second coming or some sort of synonym for second coming in Zechariah?
but if one already has their mind made up that Zechariah 14 doesn't involve the 2nd coming, I seriously doubt that someone like me is going to be able to convince them it is, if they they are already convinced that Zechariah 14 does not record the 2nd coming nor is any of it meaning post the 2nd coming either.
Many, many of our readers, The lurkers who are not posting at all but simply following along this conversation, searching the Scriptures for themselves, are not yet convinced either way.
Why squander your chance at convincing them? Especially when your lack of attempting to do so will just be seen by them as capitulation by you to the person who had the stronger biblical argument.
They are the ones I’m posting for. I’m not trying to convince you of anything,